A physical therapist evaluates a patient with patellofemoral pain syndrome. Which exercise is MOST appropriate to target the vastus medialis oblique (VMO)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Terminal knee extensions. This exercise specifically targets the VMO due to the positioning of the knee at the end range of extension, where the VMO is most activated. This helps to strengthen and stabilize the patella. Straight leg raises (A) mainly target the hip flexors. Short arc quadriceps exercises (B) primarily activate the entire quadriceps muscle group. Step-down exercises (C) focus on overall lower limb strength and control, not specifically targeting the VMO. Thus, terminal knee extensions are the most appropriate choice to isolate and strengthen the VMO in the context of patellofemoral pain syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the 'plan' portion of the clinical record typically includes details about the intended course of action for the patient's treatment or management. In this case, providing a referral to a social worker is a specific plan of action to address the patient's needs beyond medical treatment. Choices A, C, and D provide information about the patient's current condition or symptoms, which would typically be recorded in the 'assessment' or 'subjective' portions of the clinical record.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the review of systems documents the patient's symptoms and issues related to various organ systems. In this case, the patient denying chest pain, palpitations, or orthopnea indicates the absence of cardiovascular symptoms. Choice B focuses on a single blood pressure reading, which is not part of the review of systems. Choice C is specific to abdominal pain and its onset, which is not a comprehensive review of systems. Choice D pertains to family history, which is typically documented separately from the review of systems. Therefore, choice A best represents information documented in the review of systems.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (9-12) because a GCS score of 9-12 indicates a moderate head injury. This score reflects a patient who is moderately impaired in terms of consciousness and neurological functioning. A GCS score of 13-15 (choice A) indicates mild injury, while a score of 6-8 (choice C) indicates severe injury. A score of 3-5 (choice D) indicates a critical and severe head injury, typically associated with deep coma. In summary, the GCS score of 9-12 represents a moderate head injury, while the other choices reflect different levels of severity in head injuries based on the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). When the nurse asks the patient to smile, they are assessing the function of the facial muscles, which is innervated by cranial nerve VII. This nerve controls facial expression, including smiling. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for sensation in the face and chewing, not facial expression. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) is involved in swallowing and taste, not facial movement. Cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) controls various autonomic functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial muscles.