A physical therapist assesses the functional strength of a patient's quadriceps by observing the patient rise from a chair. What type of contraction occurs in the quadriceps during this activity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Concentric. During the activity of rising from a chair, the quadriceps contract and shorten to lift the body upward, which is a concentric contraction. This type of contraction generates force while the muscle is shortening. Choice B, Eccentric, involves the muscle lengthening while generating force, which does not occur when rising from a chair. Choice C, Isometric, involves the muscle contracting without changing length, which is not the case during this activity. Choice D, Isokinetic, refers to a type of muscle contraction at a constant speed, which is not specific to the scenario of rising from a chair.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotator cuff tear. Limited active range of motion with normal passive range of motion in shoulder abduction suggests a muscle-related issue, such as a rotator cuff tear. In this case, the patient can move the shoulder when someone else assists, indicating intact passive structures and a problem with the muscles. Adhesive capsulitis (choice A) typically presents with limitations in both active and passive range of motion. Glenohumeral arthritis (choice C) usually results in decreased passive range of motion as well. Shoulder impingement (choice D) may lead to pain during certain movements, but it would not explain the specific limitation described in the question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal artery stenosis. A bruit over the renal arteries indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowed or blocked arteries, which is a classic sign of renal artery stenosis. This condition can lead to hypertension and renal dysfunction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A is incorrect because a bruit is not a normal vascular sound; C is incorrect as aortic aneurysm would typically present with a pulsatile mass and not just a bruit; D is incorrect as increased peristalsis would not be detected as a bruit in the renal area.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. These cranial nerves are responsible for controlling the extraocular muscles. Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements, cranial nerve IV (trochlear) controls the superior oblique muscle, and cranial nerve VI (abducens) controls the lateral rectus muscle. Evaluating these cranial nerves allows the nurse to assess the full range of eye movements. Choice A (Cranial nerves II, III, and IV) includes the optic nerve (II) which is responsible for vision, not extraocular movements. Choice C (Cranial nerves V, VI, and VII) involves the trigeminal nerve (V) responsible for facial sensation, not eye movements. Choice D (Cranial nerves II, V, and VII) includes the optic nerve (II) and facial nerve (VII), which are not primarily involved in controlling extraocular movements

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's ability to chew and detect light touch on the face. This is the most appropriate action for assessing cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) as this nerve is responsible for sensory functions of the face and motor function of the muscles of mastication. By assessing the patient's ability to chew and detecting light touch on the face, the nurse can evaluate the integrity of the trigeminal nerve. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the patient's ability to shrug their shoulders against resistance would be more indicative of assessing cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Choice C is incorrect because checking for gag reflex and swallowing is more related to cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus). Choice D is incorrect because evaluating the patient's hearing ability is related to cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear).