A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.

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Question 1 of 9

A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: chronic. A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is characterized by ongoing viral replication without cell lysis. This type of infection is referred to as chronic, as it persists over an extended period. Latent infections involve periods of dormancy with intermittent reactivation. Slow infections typically have a prolonged incubation period before causing symptoms. Transforming infections lead to permanent alterations in host cell behavior. The key distinction for this question is the continuous viral replication without cell destruction, which aligns with the definition of a chronic infection.

Question 2 of 9

A wound swab from a patient with severe tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods in chains producing gas. The bacteria were spore-forming. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.

Question 3 of 9

Which bacteria are responsible for causing bacterial meningitis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Bacterial meningitis can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae. These bacteria are common pathogens associated with meningitis. Each of them can lead to serious infections in the brain and spinal cord. Neisseria meningitidis is known for causing meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of H. influenzae meningitis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for pneumococcal meningitis. Therefore, since all three bacteria can cause bacterial meningitis, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can cause bacterial meningitis; it is not limited to just one specific type.

Question 4 of 9

The following viruses are referred to the Filoviridae family

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Marburg virus and Ebola virus belong to the Filoviridae family. These viruses are characterized by their filamentous shape and are known to cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans. Both viruses have caused outbreaks with high mortality rates. Choice A (Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses) are not part of the Filoviridae family. They belong to the Arenaviridae family, which also includes viruses that cause hemorrhagic fevers. Choice B (Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus) are arboviruses belonging to the Togaviridae family, which are not related to the Filoviridae family. Choice D (Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus) are part of the Nairoviridae and Hantaviridae families, respectively, and not the Filoviridae family.

Question 5 of 9

The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is cell wall synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins, which are essential for building the bacterial cell wall. By disrupting cell wall synthesis, beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis and death. Protein synthesis (Choice A), DNA replication (Choice B), and folic acid synthesis (Choice D) are not directly targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics, making them incorrect choices.

Question 6 of 9

A child presented with foul-smelling diarrhea. Stool microscopy revealed trophozoites with two nuclei and flagella. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea. The trophozoites of Giardia lamblia have two nuclei and flagella, which are characteristic features seen on stool microscopy. The presence of these specific features helps differentiate Giardia lamblia from the other options. Entamoeba histolytica (B) typically presents with one nucleus and lacks flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis (C) is a sexually transmitted parasite with a different morphology. Balantidium coli (D) is a ciliated parasite, not flagellated like Giardia lamblia.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is known for producing a neurotoxin that causes botulism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the neurotoxin responsible for botulism. Clostridium perfringens is associated with gas gangrene, not botulism. Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not botulism. Therefore, A is the correct choice.

Question 8 of 9

A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Question 9 of 9

A 37-year-old male was admitted to a hospital complaining of abdominal pain, difficulty in swallowing and breathing, constipation, and nausea. He developed respiratory failure and required endotracheal intubation and ventilation. Two days before, the patient consumed dried salted fish bought from an artisanal producer. Laboratory investigation for infectious pathogen was performed using Kitt-Tarozzi's method. Observation under a bright field microscopy revealed the presence of typical microorganisms with tennis racket appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. Botulism is caused by the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria found in improperly preserved or canned foods. The symptoms described align with botulism, such as difficulty swallowing and breathing due to muscle paralysis. The tennis racket appearance seen under microscopy corresponds to the characteristic appearance of Clostridium botulinum spores. The other choices can be ruled out based on the clinical presentation and microscopy findings. Cholera typically presents with severe watery diarrhea, Nontyphoidal Salmonella infection with fever and gastrointestinal symptoms, and Typhoid fever with high fever and abdominal pain. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is botulism.

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