A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: chronic. A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is characterized by ongoing viral replication without cell lysis. This type of infection is referred to as chronic, as it persists over an extended period. Latent infections involve periods of dormancy with intermittent reactivation. Slow infections typically have a prolonged incubation period before causing symptoms. Transforming infections lead to permanent alterations in host cell behavior. The key distinction for this question is the continuous viral replication without cell destruction, which aligns with the definition of a chronic infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by being Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule, as described in the question. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae, distinguishing it from the other choices. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it typically forms clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present with a capsule in the same way Streptococcus pneumoniae does.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Neisseria meningitidis are the most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae is often seen in children, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common in adults, and Neisseria meningitidis is common in adolescents and young adults. Choice A is incorrect because although Streptococcus group B and Listeria monocytogenes can cause meningitis, E. Coli K1 is not a common causative agent. Choice C is incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are not typically associated with bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect as there are known causative agents for bacterial meningitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea. The trophozoites of Giardia lamblia have two nuclei and flagella, which are characteristic features seen on stool microscopy. The presence of these specific features helps differentiate Giardia lamblia from the other options. Entamoeba histolytica (B) typically presents with one nucleus and lacks flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis (C) is a sexually transmitted parasite with a different morphology. Balantidium coli (D) is a ciliated parasite, not flagellated like Giardia lamblia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive bacterium that forms sulfur granules (druses) with gram-positive coloring in the center and filamentous structures resembling cones with gram-negative coloring. This morphology is characteristic of Actinomyces species. Fusobacteriosis (choice A) typically presents with gram-negative rods. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis (choice C) is caused by gram-positive staphylococci, not Actinomyces. Anaerobic infections (choice D) can be caused by various bacteria, but the specific morphology described in the question matches Actinomyces, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 1. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. 2. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the US. 3. The U.S. Department of Labor oversees OSHA's operations and regulations. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as OSHA is a division of the U.S. Department of Labor. 5. Other choices are incorrect because they are not directly related to OSHA's jurisdiction or responsibilities.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is an anaerobic, Gram-positive rod that forms terminal spores and produces gas. It is commonly associated with wound infections and gas gangrene. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism and does not typically present with gas production. Bacillus anthracis is an aerobic, Gram-positive spore-forming bacterium causing anthrax. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus and does not produce gas. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.