A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology an introduction test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: chronic. A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is characterized by ongoing viral replication without cell lysis. This type of infection is referred to as chronic, as it persists over an extended period. Latent infections involve periods of dormancy with intermittent reactivation. Slow infections typically have a prolonged incubation period before causing symptoms. Transforming infections lead to permanent alterations in host cell behavior. The key distinction for this question is the continuous viral replication without cell destruction, which aligns with the definition of a chronic infection.

Question 2 of 9

What is the primary function of bacterial capsules?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary function of bacterial capsules is to aid in adhesion and protect against phagocytosis. Capsules help bacteria adhere to surfaces and evade immune system detection by preventing phagocytosis. This is important for bacterial survival and colonization in host organisms. Choice A, protein synthesis, is incorrect as capsules do not directly participate in this process. Choice C, facilitate motility, is incorrect as capsules are not involved in bacterial movement. Choice D, synthesize DNA, is incorrect as capsules do not have a role in DNA synthesis. Thus, the correct answer is B.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a severe case of pneumonia had sputum stained using the Gram method. The smear revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by being Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule, as described in the question. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae, distinguishing it from the other choices. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it typically forms clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present with a capsule in the same way Streptococcus pneumoniae does.

Question 4 of 9

Bacteria are studied by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identification. Bacteria are studied by identification to determine their specific characteristics and differentiate between different species. Taxonomy (A) is the science of classification, not specific to bacteria. Classification (B) is the process of grouping organisms based on shared characteristics, not specific to bacteria. Nomenclature (D) is the naming system for organisms, not the primary method for studying bacteria. Therefore, identification (C) is the correct choice for studying bacteria.

Question 5 of 9

The cell surface of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria can be covered in villi and cilia. What function do these structures have?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial adhesion to the surface of the host cells, conjugation. Villi and cilia on the cell surface of pathogenic bacteria help in bacterial adhesion to host cells, facilitating the process of infection. Conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells, which can be aided by these structures. The other choices are incorrect because RNA exchange between cells (A) is typically facilitated by different structures like pili, inhibition of complement activity (B) is not related to the function of villi and cilia, and resistance to antibody opsonization (D) is usually achieved through other mechanisms such as capsule formation.

Question 6 of 9

What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following diseases is not caused by enteroviruses?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Answer B, Infectious mononucleosis, is not caused by enteroviruses. Infectious mononucleosis is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, a member of the herpesvirus family, not by enteroviruses. Enteroviruses are known to cause diseases such as myocarditis, herpangina, and Boston exanthema. Therefore, B is the correct answer. Myocarditis, herpangina, and Boston exanthema can all be caused by enteroviruses, making choices A, C, and D incorrect, respectively.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is a phase I reaction in biotransformation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxidation. Phase I reactions in biotransformation involve introducing or unmasking functional groups through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Oxidation reactions typically involve the addition of an oxygen atom or removal of hydrogen atoms, making them common phase I reactions. In this process, enzymes like cytochrome P450 play a crucial role in catalyzing the oxidation reactions. Conjugation (B), acetylation (C), and glucuronidation (D) are all examples of phase II reactions, which involve the conjugation of the drug or metabolite with endogenous compounds to increase water solubility for excretion. These reactions typically follow phase I reactions and are not classified as phase I reactions in biotransformation.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days