ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patients most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patients cancer cells spread?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematologic spread. In this case, the cancer cells have traveled through the bloodstream to reach the bones and liver. This process is known as hematologic spread, where cancer cells enter the blood vessels and spread to distant organs. Lymphatic circulation (B) involves the spread of cancer cells through the lymphatic system, which is less likely in this scenario. Invasion (C) refers to cancer cells infiltrating nearby tissues, not distant organs. Angiogenesis (D) is the process of new blood vessel formation to support tumor growth, but it does not explain the spread of cancer cells to other organs.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 4 of 9
In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incomplete abortion at 16 weeks may require a D&C to remove remaining tissue to prevent infection and complications. Incomplete abortion means not all fetal tissue has been expelled, posing a risk. Choice A (complete abortion at 8 weeks) does not require a D&C as all tissue is expelled. Choice C (threatened abortion at 6 weeks) does not necessitate immediate intervention. Choice D (incomplete abortion at 10 weeks) is not the best choice as the risk of complications increases with gestational age.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of atopic dermatitis, which commonly affects both of her hands and forearms. What risk nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the patients care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Self-Care Deficit Related to Skin Lesions. Patients with atopic dermatitis may experience difficulty performing self-care tasks due to pain, itching, and limitations in hand mobility caused by skin lesions. This diagnosis addresses the potential challenges the patient may face in maintaining personal hygiene and managing their skin condition. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Risk for Disturbed Body Image Related to Skin Lesions - While atopic dermatitis may impact body image, the priority in this case is the patient's ability to perform self-care. B: Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Dermatitis - Disuse syndrome is not typically associated with atopic dermatitis. C: Risk for Ineffective Role Performance Related to Dermatitis - This diagnosis focuses on the patient's ability to fulfill their roles, which may not be directly impacted by atopic dermatitis.
Question 7 of 9
An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinsons disease. Which of the wifes descriptions of her husbands health and function is most suggestive of Parkinsons disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson's disease is bradykinesia, which is characterized by slowness of movement. This symptom commonly presents as a person moving far more slowly than usual. Option B is more indicative of arthritis or another musculoskeletal condition. Option C suggests possible cognitive decline or dementia, not specific to Parkinson's disease. Option D could indicate a different medical condition causing weight loss despite a good appetite. Therefore, A is the most suggestive of Parkinson's disease based on the symptom of bradykinesia.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because acknowledging the patient's fear validates their emotions, builds trust, and shows empathy. This can help the patient feel understood and supported during a vulnerable time. Choice B is incorrect because discussing support groups may not address the patient's immediate emotional needs. Choice C is incorrect because assessing stress management skills may not be the priority at this moment when the patient is visibly tense. Choice D is incorrect because documenting a nursing diagnosis should come after addressing the patient's immediate emotional state.
Question 9 of 9
In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.