A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta completely covers the cervix, posing a risk of severe bleeding during vaginal delivery. Cesarean birth is necessary to avoid potential life-threatening complications for both the mother and the baby. Partial abruptio placentae (choice A) involves premature separation of the placenta, but it doesn't always require a cesarean birth. Ectopic pregnancy (choice C) occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically requiring surgical intervention but not always a cesarean birth. Eclampsia (choice D) is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and seizures, but it doesn't always necessitate cesarean birth unless there are other complications that require it.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving a hypertonic solution enema to a patient with fluid volume excess can worsen the condition by drawing more fluid into the colon. This can lead to further fluid volume overload and electrolyte imbalances. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal saline enema is appropriate for constipation. C: Kayexalate enema is used to treat hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. D: Oil retention enema is indicated for constipation to soften stool.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hearing loss and tinnitus caused by aspirin are typically irreversible. Aspirin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can lead to permanent damage to the auditory system. The nurse should inform the patient that the hearing loss and tinnitus may not improve even after discontinuing aspirin. Choice A is incorrect because hearing loss caused by aspirin is usually permanent. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin is a known cause of tinnitus and hearing loss. Choice D is incorrect because tolerance to aspirin does not prevent or reverse ototoxic effects like tinnitus and hearing loss.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" This response acknowledges the patient's anxiety and invites him to explore his reasons for wanting to smoke, opening up a dialogue and potentially uncovering underlying issues. It also avoids judgment or direct orders, fostering a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: "Smoking is the reason you are here." - This response is blaming and may increase the patient's guilt or anxiety, hindering effective communication. B: "The doctor left orders for you not to smoke." - This response is authoritative and may lead to resistance or defensiveness from the patient, rather than addressing his concerns. D: "Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated." - This response is unclear and may send mixed messages to the patient, potentially leading to confusion or misunderstanding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the offending agent, if possible. This is prioritized in contact dermatitis to prevent further exposure and recurrence. By identifying the specific irritant or allergen, the nurse can guide the patient in avoiding it, leading to effective management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while promoting adequate perfusion, safe use of topical antihistamines, and teaching the use of an EpiPen may be relevant in certain situations, they do not directly address the root cause of contact dermatitis, which is exposure to the offending agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic retinopathy. This is because diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults over 40, resulting from diabetes affecting blood vessels in the retina. Trauma (B) is a common cause of visual impairment but not as prevalent as diabetic retinopathy in this age group. Macular degeneration (C) primarily affects older individuals, typically over 50, rather than those over 40. Cytomegalovirus (D) is a cause of blindness in immunocompromised individuals, not specific to the age group mentioned. Glaucoma (E) is a leading cause of blindness worldwide but is more common in older adults and not specifically over 40.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reports to third-party payers. In home health care, it is essential to document and report patient care to third-party payers for reimbursement purposes. This includes detailed reports on the services provided, patient progress, and any changes in the care plan. This information is crucial for ensuring that the patient receives appropriate reimbursement for the care received. Incorrect choices: A: Nursing process form - While a nursing process form is important for documenting patient care, it is not specifically related to reporting to third-party payers. B: Step-by-step skills manual - While a skills manual may be helpful for guiding care provision, it is not typically included in the patient's medical record. C: A list of possible procedures - While a list of procedures may be useful for reference, it is not a formal part of the patient's medical record for home care documentation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.