ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with HIV has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. This intervention is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients at risk for impaired skin integrity, such as those with HIV. By redistributing pressure, a pressure-reducing mattress helps to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Limiting physical activity (B) can lead to muscle atrophy and worsen skin integrity. Applying antibiotic ointment (C) may not address the root cause of skin breakdown. Avoiding synthetic fabrics (D) may be helpful in some cases, but it is not as effective as using a pressure-reducing mattress.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinsons disease. The patient is having increasing problems with rising from the sitting to the standing position. What should the nurse suggest to the patient to use that will aid in getting from the sitting to the standing position as well as aid in improving bowel elimination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Use of a raised toilet seat Rationale: A raised toilet seat helps the patient with Parkinson's disease by providing additional height, making it easier for them to transition from sitting to standing. This aids in improving mobility and reducing the risk of falls. Furthermore, the raised seat can also promote proper positioning for bowel elimination, making the process more comfortable and effective. Incorrect Choices: A: Using a bedpan does not address the issue of transitioning from sitting to standing, nor does it aid in improving bowel elimination for the patient. C: Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours may not directly address the physical challenges the patient is facing in transitioning from sitting to standing. D: Following the outlined bowel program is important, but it does not specifically address the physical support needed to transition from sitting to standing for a patient with Parkinson's disease.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Esophageal cancer. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for developing esophageal cancer. Ethanol, a component of alcohol, can damage the cells lining the esophagus and lead to the development of cancer over time. Incorrect choices: A: Malignant melanoma - Alcohol consumption is not directly linked to the development of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer. B: Brain cancer - There is no strong evidence linking alcohol consumption to an increased risk of brain cancer. C: Breast cancer - While excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for breast cancer, the primary association is with esophageal cancer in this case. E: Liver cancer - While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and increase the risk of liver cancer, the question specifies the types of cancer the patient is at risk for due to alcohol consumption, not the general risks associated with alcohol abuse.
Question 5 of 9
Following a motorcycle accident, a 17-year-old man is brought to the ED. What physical assessment findings related to the ear should be reported by the nurse immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Clear, watery fluid draining from the ear post-accident indicates a possible cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as meningitis. 2. CSF leak can result from a basilar skull fracture, common in head injuries like motorcycle accidents. 3. Prompt reporting of this finding by the nurse is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of potential life-threatening complications. Summary: A: Visualizing the malleus during otoscopic examination is normal and not an immediate concern in this scenario. B: A pearly gray tympanic membrane is a normal finding and does not indicate a serious issue post-accident. C: Tenderness in the mastoid area may suggest injury but is not as urgent as clear, watery fluid drainage indicative of a CSF leak.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has just been diagnosed with breast cancer and the nurse is performing a patient interview. In assessing this patients ability to cope with this diagnosis, what would be an appropriate question for the nurse to ask this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Is there someone you trust to help you make treatment choices? This question assesses the patient's support system and ability to make informed decisions, which are crucial in coping with a breast cancer diagnosis. It shows the nurse's consideration for the patient's emotional well-being and involvement in the decision-making process. Choice A: What is your level of education? This question is not directly related to coping with the diagnosis of breast cancer and may not provide relevant information about the patient's ability to cope. Choice B: Are you feeling alright these days? While this question shows concern for the patient's well-being, it does not specifically address coping mechanisms or support systems. Choice D: Are you concerned about receiving this diagnosis? This question focuses on the patient's emotional reaction to the diagnosis but does not directly assess coping strategies or support systems.
Question 7 of 9
Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean birth?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta completely covers the cervix, posing a risk of severe bleeding during vaginal delivery. Cesarean birth is necessary to avoid potential life-threatening complications for both the mother and the baby. Partial abruptio placentae (choice A) involves premature separation of the placenta, but it doesn't always require a cesarean birth. Ectopic pregnancy (choice C) occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically requiring surgical intervention but not always a cesarean birth. Eclampsia (choice D) is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and seizures, but it doesn't always necessitate cesarean birth unless there are other complications that require it.
Question 8 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the lesions clean and dry. This intervention helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Cleaning the lesions reduces the risk of secondary infections and discomfort. Keeping the area dry can also help alleviate pain and discomfort associated with moisture. Covering with a topical antibiotic (A) may not address pain directly and could potentially irritate the lesions. Applying a topical NSAID (C) may provide some pain relief but does not address the primary need to keep the lesions clean and dry. Remaining on bed rest (D) is not necessary for managing acute pain related to genital lesions.