ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 3 of 9
A 22-year-old male is being discharged home after surgery for testicular cancer. The patient is scheduled to begin chemotherapy in 2 weeks. The patient tells the nurse that he doesnt think he can take weeks or months of chemotherapy, stating that he has researched the adverse effects online. What is the most appropriate nursing action for this patient at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to foster a positive outlook. Rationale: 1. Empathy and encouragement are essential in establishing rapport and trust with the patient. 2. By fostering a positive outlook, the nurse can help alleviate the patient's anxiety and fears. 3. Encouraging a positive mindset can improve the patient's adherence to treatment. 4. It is important to address the patient's concerns and provide support rather than dismissing them. Summary: B: Telling the patient it is his decision may not address his emotional needs and could lead to further distress. C: Reporting the patient's statement to his support system may breach confidentiality and undermine trust. D: Referring the patient to social work may be premature without first addressing the patient's emotional concerns directly.
Question 4 of 9
A 56-year-old patient has come to the clinic for his routine eye examination and is told he needs bifocals. The patient asks the nurse what change in his eyes has caused his need for bifocals. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately explains the physiological change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. As individuals age, there is a gradual thickening of the lens of the eye, which affects the eye's ability to accommodate for near vision. This thickening makes it harder for the eye to focus on close objects, necessitating the use of bifocals to correct this near vision issue. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a scientifically accurate explanation for the need for bifocals in older individuals. Option A is dismissive and does not address the specific change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. Option B implies aging as a general concept without specifying the relevant change in the eye. Option D incorrectly states that the eye gets shorter as we age, which is not the reason for needing bifocals.
Question 5 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.
Question 6 of 9
A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensuring patient privacy. In the PLISSIT model, ensuring patient privacy is crucial as it creates a safe and confidential environment for discussing sensitive topics like sexual health. This step helps build trust and allows the patient to feel comfortable sharing intimate details. Briefly teaching about normal sexual physiology (A) may come later in the assessment process. Assuring confidentiality (B) is important but doesn't address the immediate need for privacy. Asking if the patient is willing to discuss sexual functioning (C) assumes patient readiness without first establishing a private setting.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 8 of 9
A patient diagnosed with arthritis has been taking aspirin and now reports experiencing tinnitus and hearing loss. What should the nurse teach this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hearing loss and tinnitus caused by aspirin are typically irreversible. Aspirin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can lead to permanent damage to the auditory system. The nurse should inform the patient that the hearing loss and tinnitus may not improve even after discontinuing aspirin. Choice A is incorrect because hearing loss caused by aspirin is usually permanent. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin is a known cause of tinnitus and hearing loss. Choice D is incorrect because tolerance to aspirin does not prevent or reverse ototoxic effects like tinnitus and hearing loss.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision. This is the most likely major nursing diagnosis because post-surgical pain is a common and expected occurrence after breast surgery. The patient is likely to experience pain due to tissue manipulation and incision during the surgery. Addressing acute pain is crucial for the patient's comfort, well-being, and overall recovery. Choice B (Ineffective coping related to surgery) may be a secondary nursing diagnosis, but acute pain takes priority as it directly impacts the patient's immediate comfort and recovery. Choice C (Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis since the patient has already undergone surgery and is not at risk for further injury at this point. Choice D (Chronic sorrow related to change in body image) is not the most immediate concern post-surgery; addressing acute pain is more critical.