A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and anxiety, opioid medications are often prioritized by palliative care providers for symptom management. Opioids are effective in relieving dyspnea by acting as respiratory depressants and reducing the feeling of air hunger. Additionally, opioids have sedative effects that can help alleviate anxiety and promote relaxation. Therefore, in this situation, prescribing opioid medications would be the most appropriate intervention to address both the dyspnea and anxiety symptoms simultaneously. Oxygen therapy, relaxation techniques, and breathing exercises may also be useful adjunctive interventions, but opioid medications are typically prioritized for immediate symptom relief in this context.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of type 2 diabetes Mellitus?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues and defective beta cell secretion with loss of insulin. In type 2 diabetes, there is typically not destruction of beta cells from an autoimmune mechanism that leads to lack of insulin and hyperglycemia as seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Instead, in type 2 diabetes, the pancreas initially produces insulin, but the body's cells become resistant to its effects. This results in hyperglycemia due to the inability of the body to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, choice C is not true for type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Question 3 of 9

Qualitative researchers should choose their participants who can best meet the objectives of the study, who of the following best qualifies?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When selecting participants for a qualitative research study, it is important to choose individuals who are able to articulate and reflect on the phenomenon being studied. This is crucial for gathering in-depth and rich data that can provide valuable insights for the study. Participants who can express their experiences, thoughts, and feelings clearly will allow the researcher to delve deeper into the research objectives and gain a more comprehensive understanding of the phenomenon under investigation. Selecting individuals with the ability to articulate and reflect ensures that the data collected will be meaningful and contribute significantly to the research findings. It is essential for qualitative researchers to prioritize such participants who can best meet the objectives of the study by offering detailed and insightful perspectives.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and exertional dyspnea. Laboratory tests reveal severe anemia, low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and elevated total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of fatigue, pallor, exertional dyspnea along with the laboratory findings of severe anemia, low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and elevated TIBC are consistent with iron deficiency anemia. In iron deficiency anemia, there is inadequate iron available for erythropoiesis leading to microcytic hypochromic anemia. The low serum iron and transferrin saturation, along with the elevated TIBC, indicate decreased iron stores and increased iron-binding capacity as the body tries to compensate for the deficiency by increasing absorption and recycling of iron. Anemia of chronic disease typically presents with mild to moderate anemia, normal to low TIBC, and low transferrin saturation due to iron sequestration in macrophages. Sideroblastic anemia usually has elevated serum iron, high saturation, and normal to low TIBC. Thalassemia presents with microcytic hyp

Question 5 of 9

A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for heart failure. Which laboratory parameter should the nurse monitor closely during ACE inhibitor therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels closely during ACE inhibitor therapy because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in serum potassium levels, known as hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which in turn decreases aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone normally acts in the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water and excrete potassium. Therefore, when aldosterone secretion is decreased due to ACE inhibitor therapy, there can be an increase in potassium retention, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 6 of 9

Patient Benito ask5 Nurse Virgo, "Why can't the surgeon just take out my pancreas?" The BEST response of Nurse Virgo is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best response of Nurse Virgo is to explain to Patient Benito that his body needs to function well with his pancreas. The pancreas plays a critical role in the digestive system by producing digestive enzymes and hormones that help regulate blood sugar levels. Removing the pancreas would result in serious health consequences and complications, as the body relies on it for essential functions. It is important for the patient to understand the significance of the pancreas and why its removal is not a viable solution.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with a palpable thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals follicular cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Follicular thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Patients with follicular thyroid carcinoma may present with a palpable thyroid nodule, which in this case is causing signs of hyperthyroidism due to the overproduction of thyroid hormones by the malignant cells. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy revealing follicular cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy further supports the diagnosis of follicular thyroid carcinoma in this scenario.

Question 8 of 9

What should be the INITIAL S'TEP in the process of change for the senior nurse

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The initial step in the process of change for the senior nurse should be to identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or correction. Before setting goals, planning strategies, or identifying solutions, it is essential to first pinpoint the specific area or aspect that requires change. By identifying the inefficiency, the senior nurse can gain a clear understanding of the root cause of the issue and focus efforts on addressing it effectively. This step lays the foundation for the rest of the change process by providing a specific target for improvement.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with a pruritic, annular rash with fine scaling and central clearing, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports recent exposure to a new soap and laundry detergent. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of a pruritic, annular rash with fine scaling and central clearing, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities, following exposure to a new soap and laundry detergent is most consistent with tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm. Ringworm is a superficial fungal infection caused by dermatophytes that can present with circular or annular lesions with central clearing and scaling. The exposure to new soap and laundry detergent may have disrupted the skin's microbiome, making it more vulnerable to fungal infections like tinea corporis. Nummular eczema typically presents as coin-shaped plaques rather than annular lesions, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by smaller similar lesions in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Lichen planus would not typically be associated with exposure to new soap and laundry detergent but can have distinct purple, polygonal papules.

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