A patient with suspicion on epidemic typhus was admitted to the hospital. Some arachnids and insects have been found in his flat. Which of them may be a carrier of the pathogen of epidemic typhus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lice. Lice, specifically body lice (Pediculus humanus corporis), are known carriers of the pathogen Rickettsia prowazekii, which causes epidemic typhus. Body lice are commonly found in unsanitary conditions and can transmit the bacteria through their bites. Spiders (choice B), bed-bugs (choice C), and cockroaches (choice D) are not known vectors of epidemic typhus. Spiders are predators that do not transmit diseases to humans, while bed-bugs and cockroaches are associated with other health issues but not epidemic typhus transmission.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. This enzyme is required for replicating viral RNA due to its ability to catalyze the synthesis of RNA using an RNA template. Reverse transcriptase (A) is used to transcribe RNA into DNA, not replicate viral RNA. DNA polymerase (B) is used for replicating DNA, not RNA. Ligase (D) is involved in joining DNA fragments, not in replicating viral RNA. Therefore, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is the only enzyme that specifically performs the function required for replicating viral RNA.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. This bacterium causes the plague, which presents with fever and swollen lymph nodes. The safety pin appearance on Gram stain is characteristic of Yersinia pestis. B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, which presents differently and does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which does not typically present with the same symptoms as described in the question. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain and does not typically present with fever and swollen lymph nodes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gp120. Gp120 is a glycoprotein on the surface of the HIV virus that specifically binds to the CD4 receptor on target cells. This binding is essential for the virus to enter the host cell and initiate the infection process. Gp41 is another glycoprotein on the virus that helps with membrane fusion, not binding to CD4. Gp32 and Gp55 are not involved in the specific binding of HIV to CD4 molecules. So, A is correct as it directly plays a key role in the initial attachment of HIV to target cells.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: chemoheterotrophs. Chemoheterotrophs use organic compounds as both their carbon source and energy source. They obtain energy by breaking down organic molecules through cellular respiration. Photoautotrophs (A) use light energy to produce organic compounds, chemoautotrophs (B) use inorganic compounds for energy, and photoheterotrophs (C) use light energy but require organic compounds as a carbon source. Therefore, chemoheterotrophs best describe bacteria that obtain both carbon and energy from organic compounds.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genus Shigella. Shigella is known to be the causative agent of bacterial dysentery. It invades the intestinal lining, leading to symptoms like severe diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Salmonella (choice B) typically causes food poisoning, not dysentery. Klebsiella (choice C) is associated with pneumonia and urinary tract infections, not dysentery. "None of the above" (choice D) is incorrect as Shigella does belong to a specific genus responsible for bacterial dysentery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba gingivalis. Firstly, it is important to note that Entamoeba gingivalis is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in carious cavities. Secondly, Entamoeba gingivalis belongs to the Sarcodina class, which is characterized by their amoeboid movement using pseudopods. This protozoa is associated with oral health issues, particularly in individuals with poor oral hygiene. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: B: Entamoeba histolutica is known for causing amoebic dysentery, not commonly associated with oral cavities. C: Entamoeba coli is typically found in the human large intestine, not in oral cavities. D: Amoeba proteus is a free-living amoeba commonly used in laboratory studies and not typically associated with oral cavity infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium tetani. Endospores are formed by certain bacteria as a survival mechanism in harsh conditions. Clostridium species, including C. tetani, have the ability to form endospores. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Neisseria gonorrhoeae (C), and Escherichia coli (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococci bacterium, and Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium. Therefore, the correct choice is Clostridium tetani as it is known for its ability to form endospores.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gin's stain method. Gin's stain method is specifically used to detect capsules of bacteria. This method involves staining the bacteria with crystal violet and copper sulfate, which highlights the capsules as a clear halo around the stained bacterial cells. Ziehl-Neelsen's stain is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Neisser's stain is for detecting Neisseria species, and Gram's stain is for differentiating bacteria based on their cell wall composition (Gram-positive vs. Gram-negative). Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for this scenario.