ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with suspicion on epidemic typhus was admitted to the hospital. Some arachnids and insects have been found in his flat. Which of them may be a carrier of the pathogen of epidemic typhus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lice. Lice, specifically body lice (Pediculus humanus corporis), are known carriers of the pathogen Rickettsia prowazekii, which causes epidemic typhus. Body lice are commonly found in unsanitary conditions and can transmit the bacteria through their bites. Spiders (choice B), bed-bugs (choice C), and cockroaches (choice D) are not known vectors of epidemic typhus. Spiders are predators that do not transmit diseases to humans, while bed-bugs and cockroaches are associated with other health issues but not epidemic typhus transmission.
Question 2 of 9
The immunity in syphilis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunity in syphilis is nonsterile, meaning that individuals who have been infected may still carry the bacteria and be capable of transmitting the disease. This is due to the ability of the bacterium causing syphilis, Treponema pallidum, to evade the immune system by hiding within host cells. Option B, antitoxic, is incorrect because syphilis is not caused by a toxin produced by the bacteria, but rather by the bacterium itself. Option C, humoral, is also incorrect as syphilis immunity involves both humoral (antibody-mediated) and cell-mediated immune responses, not solely humoral immunity. Option D is incorrect as it includes all three options, whereas in reality, the immunity in syphilis is primarily nonsterile.
Question 3 of 9
For the structure of rubella virus is true that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella virus has icosahedral type of symmetry due to its spherical shape with 20 faces. This symmetry allows for efficient packaging of genetic material and structural stability. Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface that aid in host cell recognition and entry.
Question 4 of 9
A stool sample from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is a protozoan parasite known to cause amoebic dysentery, presenting with chronic diarrhea and cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample. Giardia lamblia (B) causes giardiasis with trophozoites and cysts with two nuclei. Balantidium coli (C) is a ciliated parasite causing dysentery with large trophozoites. Trichomonas hominis (D) is a non-pathogenic flagellate often found in the human intestine. Thus, based on the specific characteristics of the cysts and clinical presentation, Entamoeba histolytica is the most likely causative agent.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and bacteremia was diagnosed with plague. The Gram-stained smear revealed bipolar-staining, Gram-negative rods. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is the causative agent of plague, characterized by fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and bacteremia. The bipolar-staining, Gram-negative rods seen on Gram stain are typical of Y. pestis. Incorrect choices: B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, not plague. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, not plague. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not plague. In summary, the key features of the patient's presentation and the Gram stain findings align with Yersinia pestis as the correct causative agent of plague.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is capable of producing an endotoxin that can lead to septic shock?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. 1. Escherichia coli can produce endotoxin due to its lipopolysaccharide component. 2. Salmonella enterica also produces endotoxin as part of its cell wall structure. 3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce endotoxin as well. Therefore, all of these bacteria are capable of producing endotoxin, which can trigger an excessive immune response leading to septic shock. Other choices are incorrect because they do not cover all the bacteria mentioned in the question that are capable of producing endotoxin.
Question 7 of 9
Which one of the following is a normal skin flora?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This bacterium is a normal skin flora commonly found on human skin. It is part of the skin microbiota and helps protect against pathogenic organisms. Streptococcus pyogenes (A), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (C), and Acinetobacter baumannii (D) are not normal skin flora. Streptococcus pyogenes is a pathogenic bacterium causing various infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen commonly found in water and soil, and Acinetobacter baumannii is associated with healthcare-associated infections.
Question 8 of 9
The generation time of Escherichia Coli is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 20 minutes. Escherichia coli has a short generation time, typically around 20 minutes. This means that under ideal conditions, one bacterium can divide and produce two daughter cells every 20 minutes. This rapid growth rate is a characteristic of E. coli and is important in various fields such as microbiology and biotechnology. Choice B (60 minutes) and Choice C (20 hours) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical generation time of E. coli. Choice D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is too long for the generation time of E. coli.
Question 9 of 9
A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.