ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with suspected community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is empirically started on antibiotic therapy pending culture results. Which of the following antibiotic regimens provides appropriate coverage for typical bacterial pathogens commonly implicated in CAP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.
Question 2 of 9
Bel1le has a difficulty tolerating frustration The GOAL Of the nurse is to assist Belle to ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cope with anxiety. The nurse's goal is to address Belle's difficulty tolerating frustration, which likely leads to anxiety. By helping Belle develop coping strategies for managing her anxiety, the nurse can assist her in handling frustration more effectively. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing self-esteem, recognizing needs, and mobilizing resources may be important aspects of Belle's overall care but are not directly related to addressing her difficulty with frustration and anxiety. Focusing on coping with anxiety directly targets the root issue and is the most appropriate goal in this context.
Question 3 of 9
Upon entry of the patient to ER, the nurse must FIRST perform which nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cleanse the bite with soap and running water. This is the first nursing intervention because it is crucial to prevent infection. Cleaning the bite area helps remove bacteria and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Injecting with rabies immune globulin (choice A) and rabies vaccine (choice C) should be done later as per protocol after assessing the situation. Administering pain reliever (choice D) is important but not the first priority in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
Informed consent in this study will be obtained by Myra from the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informed consent should be obtained from both the participants and their parents to ensure full understanding and agreement from all parties involved. This is crucial when working with minors to protect their rights and ensure ethical standards are met. Choice A is incorrect as it excludes parental consent, which is necessary for minors. Choice B is also incorrect as it neglects the participants' direct involvement in consenting to participate. Choice C is incorrect because it only includes available relatives, which may not be legally authorized to provide consent on behalf of the participants.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse has a complaint from a parent for administering gwrong dose of vaccine to the child. This act is a form of _______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would under similar circumstances. In this case, administering the wrong dose of a vaccine indicates a lack of proper care or attention to detail, which constitutes negligence. A: Battery involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is not applicable in this situation. C: Assault involves the threat of harm or unwanted physical contact, which is also not relevant here. D: Malpractice typically refers to professional misconduct or negligence by a healthcare provider, which could be a broader term but not specific to the situation described.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress. - Tachypnea is a hallmark sign of ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygenation. - Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen signifies the inability to improve oxygen levels despite intervention. - Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical manifestations of ARDS, as they do not directly reflect severe hypoxemia or respiratory distress.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is conducting a discharge planning assessment for a patient preparing to transition home. What action by the nurse demonstrates continuity of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because communicating with the patient's primary care provider and community resources demonstrates continuity of care. This action ensures a seamless transition from the hospital to home by keeping all involved parties informed and involved in the patient's care. Option A (written discharge instructions only) may provide information but lacks coordination with other healthcare providers. Option B (discharging without follow-up care coordination) can lead to gaps in care. Option D (disregarding patient concerns) goes against patient-centered care and can disrupt the continuity of care.
Question 8 of 9
A Patients to take regularly Lithium after discharged. The MOST important information to impart to the patient and his family is that the patient should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, to have a limited intake of sodium. Lithium can lead to increased sodium levels in the body, potentially causing toxicity. By limiting sodium intake, the patient can maintain a balance and prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect as tyramine content is not directly related to lithium intake. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake does not have a significant impact on lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect because an adequate intake of sodium can lead to worsening lithium toxicity.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT of collaboration in a health care settings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because interprofessional collaboration and multidisciplinary collaboration are not interchangeable terms. Interprofessional collaboration involves professionals from different disciplines working together to provide comprehensive care, while multidisciplinary collaboration involves professionals from various disciplines working alongside each other but not necessarily working together in a coordinated manner. This distinction is crucial in healthcare settings to ensure effective teamwork and patient-centered care. A: Trust and respect are core values of a collaborative organization - This statement is correct because trust and respect are essential for effective collaboration in healthcare settings. B: A shared vision is essential for collaboration in any health care operations - This statement is correct as a shared vision helps align team members towards common goals. C: Successful conflict resolution can help collaborative teams overcome differences - This statement is correct as resolving conflicts constructively can strengthen team dynamics and improve collaboration.