Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking the completeness of the charting by doctors and nurses ensures that all necessary information is accurately documented, facilitating proper patient care and treatment. This step helps identify any missing or incorrect information that may impact patient safety. A: Storing the charts in respective shelves is a routine task that does not involve verifying the accuracy or completeness of the information. B: Separating medico-legal charts is important but does not directly address the completeness of charting by doctors and nurses. D: Binding the charts immediately is not necessary before ensuring the completeness and accuracy of the information documented.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetes insipidus. This condition is characterized by excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, low urine osmolality, hypernatremia, and elevated serum osmolality. The underlying cause is a deficiency in or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Hyperthyroidism (choice A) and hypothyroidism (choice B) do not directly affect urine concentration. While diabetes mellitus (choice C) can also present with polyuria and polydipsia, it would typically have high urine osmolality due to the presence of glucose. Therefore, diabetes insipidus is the most likely endocrine disorder responsible for these specific symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.