A patient with severe abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. They are known to cause severe abdominal pain due to their ability to invade the intestinal mucosa. A: Salmonella enterica is a lactose-fermenting organism and typically does not produce gas in nutrient broth. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a lactose-negative organism but does not produce gas in nutrient broth. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting organism and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broth. In summary, the presence of non-lactose-fermenting, gas-producing Gram-negative rods points towards Proteus vulgaris as the most likely causative agent of the severe abdominal pain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly found in hospital environments. 2. It is an opportunistic pathogen causing various nosocomial infections. 3. Its ability to develop resistance to antibiotics makes it a significant threat. 4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, not common nosocomial infections. 5. Shigella sonnei causes foodborne illness, not typically nosocomial infections. 6. "None of the above" is incorrect as Pseudomonas is indeed commonly associated with nosocomial infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 1. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. 2. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the US. 3. The U.S. Department of Labor oversees OSHA's operations and regulations. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as OSHA is a division of the U.S. Department of Labor. 5. Other choices are incorrect because they are not directly related to OSHA's jurisdiction or responsibilities.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C: dermatophytes Rationale: 1. Dermatophytes are fungi that specifically infect the skin, hair, and nails. 2. They are the most common fungi causing such infections in humans. 3. Plasmodium and sporozoites are parasites causing malaria, not skin diseases. 4. Nematodes are a type of roundworm and do not typically cause skin, hair, or nail infections. In summary, dermatophytes are the correct answer because they are specialized fungi that commonly cause skin, hair, and nail diseases, distinguishing them from the other choices.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. It has good tissue penetration and can treat intestinal, liver, and lung involvement. Quiniofone (A) has limited use and is not recommended for amebiasis. Enteroseptol (B) is not effective against systemic amebiasis. Tetracycline (D) is not the first-line treatment for amebiasis and has limited efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is an anaerobic, Gram-positive rod that forms terminal spores and produces gas. It is commonly associated with wound infections and gas gangrene. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism and does not typically present with gas production. Bacillus anthracis is an aerobic, Gram-positive spore-forming bacterium causing anthrax. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus and does not produce gas. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Neisseria meningitidis are the most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae is often seen in children, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common in adults, and Neisseria meningitidis is common in adolescents and young adults. Choice A is incorrect because although Streptococcus group B and Listeria monocytogenes can cause meningitis, E. Coli K1 is not a common causative agent. Choice C is incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are not typically associated with bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect as there are known causative agents for bacterial meningitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite known to cause toxoplasmosis. It belongs to the group of eukaryotic organisms called protozoans because it is a single-celled organism with complex cellular structures. Protozoans are characterized by their ability to move and perform essential functions independently. Algae (choice A) are photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms, fungi (choice B) are non-photosynthetic eukaryotes that include molds and yeasts, and helminths (choice D) are multicellular parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct answer is C because Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite.