A patient with severe abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with severe abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. They are known to cause severe abdominal pain due to their ability to invade the intestinal mucosa. A: Salmonella enterica is a lactose-fermenting organism and typically does not produce gas in nutrient broth. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a lactose-negative organism but does not produce gas in nutrient broth. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting organism and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broth. In summary, the presence of non-lactose-fermenting, gas-producing Gram-negative rods points towards Proteus vulgaris as the most likely causative agent of the severe abdominal pain.

Question 2 of 9

The patient 25 y.o. was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of double vision in the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate homemade mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, widened pupils, disorder of swallowing, bradycardia, constipation are marked. What is the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. In this case, the patient's symptoms align with botulism due to the ingestion of homemade mushrooms. The symptoms of double vision, heavy breathing, paleness, widened pupils, swallowing difficulties, bradycardia, and constipation are all classic signs of botulism poisoning. The toxin affects the nervous system and can lead to paralysis. The other choices (B: Yersiniosis, C: Leptospirosis, D: Salmonellosis) do not match the patient's symptoms and history of consuming mushrooms, making them incorrect.

Question 3 of 9

Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria based on:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cell wall composition. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on the structure of their cell walls. It classifies bacteria into Gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan layer) and Gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan layer). This differentiation is crucial for identifying bacterial species and guiding treatment choices. Size and shape (choice A) are not specific to Gram staining. Presence of flagella (choice B) is related to bacterial motility, not Gram staining. Genetic material (choice D) is not directly assessed by Gram staining. Overall, the unique composition of the cell wall is the key factor in distinguishing bacteria through Gram staining.

Question 4 of 9

UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with severe abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. They are known to cause severe abdominal pain due to their ability to invade the intestinal mucosa. A: Salmonella enterica is a lactose-fermenting organism and typically does not produce gas in nutrient broth. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a lactose-negative organism but does not produce gas in nutrient broth. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting organism and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broth. In summary, the presence of non-lactose-fermenting, gas-producing Gram-negative rods points towards Proteus vulgaris as the most likely causative agent of the severe abdominal pain.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease diphtheria?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes diphtheria. It forms a grayish membrane in the throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bacillus anthracis (Choice A) causes anthrax, Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice C) causes pneumonia, and Escherichia coli (Choice D) causes various infections but not diphtheria.

Question 7 of 9

Rheumatic fever is usually a complication of a(n) __________ infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Streptococcus pyogenes is the causative agent of strep throat. 2. If untreated, strep throat can lead to rheumatic fever. 3. Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune complication of streptococcal infections. 4. E. coli, S. epidermidis, and S. aureus are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

Question 8 of 9

A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presented with a painful, swollen lymph node, and bacteremia. A Gram-negative rod with a characteristic safety pin appearance was observed. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative rod with safety pin appearance indicates bipolar staining. Step 2: Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative rod causing bubonic plague. Step 3: Y. pestis has bipolar staining due to its unique F1 capsule. Step 4: The swollen lymph node and bacteremia are consistent with bubonic plague. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Summary: - B: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - C: Brucella melitensis causes brucellosis, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - D: Pasteurella multocida causes animal bites infections, not characterized by a safety pin appearance.

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