ATI RN
Genitourinary System Diseases Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it correctly identifies the patient's condition as "uremic nephropathy," a common complication of renal failure in diabetic patients. Uremic nephropathy refers to the damage to the kidneys caused by the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to renal failure. This choice accurately describes the patient's primary diagnosis and the reason for admission. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific diagnosis or reason for the patient's admission, only mentioning the threatening effect of renal failure without specifying the underlying cause. Choice C and D are incomplete and do not provide any information related to the patient's condition, making them incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is preparing to collect an ordered urine sample for urinalysis. The nurse should be aware that this test will include what assessment parameters? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Specific gravity of the patient's urine. Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, indicating the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. B: Testing for the presence of glucose is typically done to assess for diabetes, not a routine urinalysis. C: Microscopic examination for RBCs is mainly done to detect presence of blood in urine, not a routine parameter. D: Microscopic examination for casts is done to assess for kidney disease, not part of a routine urinalysis. Therefore, specific gravity is the key parameter for urine concentration and kidney function, making it the correct choice.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient and notices urethral drainage. When collecting urethral discharge for microscopic examination and culture, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because gently compressing the glans between the thumb and forefinger can help express the urethral discharge for collection. This method minimizes contamination and ensures a proper sample for microscopic examination and culture. A: Asking the patient to urinate into a cup would not capture the discharge. B: Semen is not relevant for urethral discharge testing. C: Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the urethra may cause trauma and is not recommended for collecting urethral discharge.
Question 4 of 5
During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on the glans, surrounded by erythema. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Genital herpes. Genital herpes presents as clusters of small vesicles on the glans surrounded by erythema. This is a classic presentation of genital herpes infection caused by herpes simplex virus. Peyronie disease (A) is characterized by penile curvature. Genital warts (B) are caused by human papillomavirus and appear as flesh-colored growths. Syphilitic chancre (D) is a painless ulcer seen in primary syphilis, not vesicles. In this case, the presence of vesicles and erythema points towards genital herpes as the most likely diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following antibiotics is considered safe to use in newborn * babies?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ampicillin. Ampicillin is considered safe for use in newborn babies because it is a commonly used antibiotic in neonates and has a favorable safety profile. It is effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly found in newborns. Chloramphenicol (A) can cause serious side effects like gray baby syndrome. Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole (B) is not recommended in newborns due to potential risks. Tetracyclines (C) can lead to tooth discoloration and bone growth inhibition in newborns.