ATI RN
McGraw Hill Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculosis antibiotic. Name this drug:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rifampicin is the correct answer because it is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis. It has excellent bactericidal activity and penetrates well into lung tissues where the infection is located. Rifampicin is also known for preventing the development of resistance. Tetracycline (A) and Furasolidone (B) are not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment. Bactrim (D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not effective for tuberculosis treatment.
Question 2 of 9
In order to accurately identify etiology of peptic ulcer disease, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis was performed on gastric biopsy specimen taken from 47-year-old patient. Eventually, the test result was positive for H. pylori. Which of the following was most likely detected in PCR analysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial DNA. PCR analysis detects specific DNA sequences, so a positive result for H. pylori indicates the presence of the bacterial DNA in the gastric biopsy specimen. This method identifies the genetic material of the bacterium, not the bacterium itself (choice C) or its toxins (choice B). Additionally, PCR does not directly detect bacterial enzymes (choice D) but rather focuses on genetic material for accurate identification. Therefore, in this case, the detection of H. pylori in the PCR analysis points to the presence of bacterial DNA, confirming the etiology of peptic ulcer disease.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria are known for causing urinary tract infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Escherichia coli is the most common bacteria causing UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. Salmonella enterica and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are not typically associated with UTIs. Therefore, by process of elimination, since A is correct, B and C are incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following best describes the role of bacterial plasmids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carrying antibiotic resistance genes. Bacterial plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can carry genes, including those for antibiotic resistance. This allows bacteria to survive exposure to antibiotics. Plasmids do not directly regulate bacterial growth (A), produce toxins (C), or facilitate endospore formation (D). Plasmids play a crucial role in the spread of antibiotic resistance among bacteria.
Question 5 of 9
A child is presumably ill with diphtheria. A specimen of affected mucous membrane of his pharynx was taken for analysis. The smear was stained and microscopic examination revealed yellow rods with dark blue thickenings on their ends. What structural element of a germ cell was revealed in the detected microorganisms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Volutin granules. Volutin granules are metachromatic granules that stain dark blue with methylene blue or Leishman stain. In diphtheria-causing bacteria, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, these granules are typically seen as yellow rods with dark blue thickenings on their ends when stained. Volutin granules are storage inclusions composed of polymetaphosphate that serve as an energy reserve for the bacteria. The presence of these granules in the detected microorganisms indicates the characteristic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Summary of other choices: B: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules that are not typically visible on stained smears. C: Capsules are outer protective layers that are not visible on stained smears. D: Spores are reproductive structures formed by certain bacteria, not typically seen in Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Question 6 of 9
By what mechanism does MRSA achieve resistance to standard beta-lactam antibiotics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Altered penicillin binding proteins. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) achieves resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, by producing altered penicillin binding proteins that have reduced affinity for these antibiotics. This alteration prevents the antibiotics from binding to their target sites on the bacterial cell wall, thus rendering them ineffective. Choice A, extended spectrum beta-lactamases, are enzymes produced by some bacteria to break down beta-lactam antibiotics, but MRSA does not use this mechanism. Choice B, penicillin efflux pump, is a mechanism where bacteria pump out antibiotics from their cells, but this is not how MRSA develops resistance. Choice C, altered peptide sequence in peptidoglycan, does not directly relate to how MRSA resists beta-lactam antibiotics.
Question 7 of 9
Mycobacteria have in their cell walls:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High amount of mycolic acids. Mycobacteria are characterized by their unique cell wall composition, which includes a high amount of mycolic acids. Mycolic acids provide the bacteria with resistance to environmental stresses and are crucial for their pathogenicity. Polysaccharides (A) are not a prominent component of mycobacterial cell walls. While lipids (B) are present in mycobacterial cell walls, mycolic acids are the predominant lipid. Proteins (D) are also present but are not the defining feature of mycobacterial cell walls. Therefore, the correct answer is C due to the significant role mycolic acids play in the structure and function of mycobacterial cell walls.
Question 8 of 9
A 16-year-old boy from the rural area entered the technical school. During a regular Mantoux test, it turned out that this boy had a negative reaction. What tactics should the doctor choose as the most rational in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BCG vaccination. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals with a negative Mantoux test result, especially in countries where tuberculosis is prevalent. This vaccination can help provide protection against tuberculosis. Choice A is incorrect because repeating the Mantoux test in a month is unnecessary since the boy already had a negative reaction. Choice B is incorrect as serodiagnosis of tuberculosis is not the first-line approach for diagnosis, especially in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because urgent isolation is not necessary based solely on the Mantoux test result. Isolation is typically reserved for individuals with active tuberculosis.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only, until the victim reaches another safety unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal eyewash. Personal eyewash is designed for immediate flushing until the victim reaches a more suitable safety unit. It provides a controlled flow of water to safely flush eyes while transporting the victim. The emergency shower (A) is meant for full-body coverage, not just for the eyes. Handheld drench hose (C) may not provide adequate flushing pressure. Combination unit (D) may not be easily portable for immediate use.