A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic. Name this drug:

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Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic. Name this drug:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis. Furasolidone (A) is not commonly used for tuberculosis, Bactrim (B) is not a first-line drug for tuberculosis, and Streptocide (C) is not as effective as Rifampicin.

Question 2 of 9

Mesophylic bacteria are with temperature optimum:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (25-37 °C) because mesophilic bacteria thrive best at moderate temperatures typical of most environments, making 25-37 °C their optimum range. This range allows for optimal enzyme activity and growth. Choice B (55-65 °C) is incorrect as it is more suitable for thermophilic bacteria. Choice C (15-18 °C) is too low for mesophiles to thrive efficiently. Choice D (38-45 °C) is too high and is more suitable for thermophiles. Ultimately, the correct answer aligns with the typical temperature range where mesophilic bacteria are most active and abundant.

Question 3 of 9

Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.

Question 4 of 9

Production of RNA and DNA is called

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transcription. This is the process where the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA molecule. It is the initial step in gene expression. A: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns from pre-mRNA to create a mature mRNA molecule. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins using the information from mRNA. C: Transposition is the movement of genetic elements within a genome. In summary, transcription specifically refers to the synthesis of RNA from DNA, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with fever and diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.

Question 6 of 9

A patient underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Analysis of the biopsy material enabled doctors to diagnose him with helicobacteriosis. What property of the bacteria found in this patient had to be obligatory taken into account during their cultivation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Helicobacter pylori, the bacteria causing helicobacteriosis, is microaerophilic, requiring low oxygen levels. 2. Cultivation conditions must mimic the natural environment of the bacteria. 3. Failure to provide a microaerophilic environment can hinder bacterial growth. 4. Thus, the ability to cultivate these bacteria requires consideration of their microaerophilic nature. Summary: - Choice A is correct because Helicobacter pylori is a microaerophilic bacteria. - Choice B (Presence of urease) is incorrect as it is a characteristic used for diagnosis, not cultivation. - Choice C (Absence of spores and capsules) is incorrect as it does not relate to cultivation requirements. - Choice D (Colonization of gastral cells) is incorrect as it pertains to bacterial behavior, not cultivation needs.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following infections are typical for the upper respiratory tract?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic atrophic rhinitis. This infection is typical for the upper respiratory tract as it affects the nasal mucosa and sinuses. It is characterized by inflammation and atrophy of the nasal mucosa. Psittacosis (A) is a zoonotic infection transmitted from birds, affecting the lungs. Mycoplasma bronchitis (B) is a lower respiratory tract infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Legionnaires disease (D) is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to the upper respiratory tract.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following best describes the Gram stain process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Gram stain process involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization and counterstaining. The primary differentiation is based on the cell wall structure, distinguishing bacteria into Gram-positive (retain purple color) and Gram-negative (lose purple color). This classification is crucial in microbiology for treatment decisions as it correlates with different antibiotic susceptibilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Gram stain process does not primarily focus on flagella, shape, or motility of bacteria.

Question 9 of 9

Gram-negative diplococci were isolated from a urethral discharge in a male patient with painful urination. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is a gram-negative diplococci commonly associated with gonorrhea, which presents with symptoms like painful urination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is known to infect the urethra in males. Escherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are all gram-negative bacteria, but they are not typically associated with urethral discharge or gonorrhea. E. coli is commonly associated with urinary tract infections, Proteus vulgaris with wound infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae with pneumonia and other respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and the characteristics of the bacteria, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most appropriate causative agent in this case.

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