A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance. What protozoan disease can it be?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance. What protozoan disease can it be?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.

Question 2 of 9

A wound culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters indicates a staphylococcal species. The fact that the bacteria are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative further narrow it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as this species fits all the given characteristics. - Choice B, Staphylococcus aureus, is coagulase-positive. - Choice C, Streptococcus pyogenes, is a streptococcal species, not staphylococcal. - Choice D, Enterococcus faecalis, is a Gram-positive cocci but is catalase-negative and not typically found in clusters.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following bacteria can be transmitted via droplets in the air?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium can be transmitted via droplets in the air through coughing or sneezing. It is spread through respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) is transmitted through direct contact with respiratory secretions, not through droplets in the air. Escherichia coli (B) is commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water, not through the air. Clostridium botulinum (C) is typically transmitted through contaminated food, not via respiratory droplets. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it is the only bacterium listed that can be transmitted via droplets in the air.

Question 4 of 9

A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Question 5 of 9

A patient had been provisionally diagnosed with syphilis. A laboratory assistant took the blood serum for an immunologic test based on the detection of antibodies preventing the movement of treponemas and causing their death. What reaction was used for the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilization. This technique is called the Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test, used to diagnose syphilis. The rationale is as follows: 1. TPI test detects antibodies that prevent the movement of treponemas, causing their death. 2. By immobilizing the treponemas, it indicates the presence of specific antibodies against syphilis. 3. This test is highly specific for syphilis diagnosis as it directly targets the causative agent. Other choices are incorrect: B: Complement binding - Not specific to syphilis, more commonly used for other diseases. C: Agglutination - Detects clumping of particles, not specific to treponemas or syphilis. D: Precipitation - Involves the formation of a solid, not directly related to treponema movement or death.

Question 6 of 9

Bacteria that require low oxygen concentrations for growth are called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Microaerophiles. These bacteria grow best in environments with low oxygen levels. They require oxygen for respiration but at lower concentrations than what is present in the atmosphere. This allows them to thrive in conditions where oxygen is limited but not completely absent. A: Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. B: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for growth. D: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and typically grow in anaerobic environments. In summary, microaerophiles are the correct choice as they specifically thrive in low oxygen environments, distinguishing them from the other options.

Question 7 of 9

A patient being treated in the burns department has suppurative complication. The pus is of bluish- green color that is indicative of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What factor is typical for this causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insect. A vehicle transmission refers to the mode by which a disease spreads from one host to another. Insects can transmit diseases, making them a vehicle for transmission. Airborne, foodborne, and bodily fluid transmissions are well-known modes of disease spread, while insects are also known vectors for diseases like malaria and Zika.

Question 9 of 9

Patients after transplantation of allogeneic stem cells are monitored periodically for reactivation of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CMV. Patients after allogeneic stem cell transplantation are monitored for CMV reactivation due to its potential to cause severe complications in immunocompromised individuals. CMV can lead to organ damage and even mortality in these patients. Monitoring for CMV reactivation allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Incorrect Choices: A: HAV - Hepatitis A virus reactivation is not commonly monitored in post-transplant patients. C: Rubella virus - Rubella is not a common concern for reactivation in this patient population. D: Measles virus - Measles reactivation is not typically monitored in these patients.

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