A patient with primary hypertension is prescribed drug therapy for the first time. The patient asks how long drug therapy will be needed. Which answer by the nurse is the correct response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Primary hypertension is a chronic condition. 2. Drug therapy for primary hypertension aims to control blood pressure long-term. 3. Lifestyle changes may help but often medication is needed. 4. Discontinuing medication can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. 5. Therefore, therapy for high blood pressure is usually lifelong. Summary: A: Incorrect, as 3 months is too short for chronic hypertension management. B: Incorrect, as a year may not be sufficient for long-term control. C: Incorrect, as symptom disappearance doesn't indicate resolved hypertension. D: Correct, as lifelong therapy is often necessary for primary hypertension.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin. Rifampin induces hepatic enzymes, which can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, leading to decreased contraceptive efficacy. This can result in breakthrough bleeding and potential contraceptive failure. It is important to advise the patient to use additional non-hormonal contraceptive methods while on rifampin therapy to prevent unintended pregnancy. Incorrect answer explanations: A: Women do not have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on rifampin. Rifampin is not known to directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. B: A higher dose of rifampin is not necessary because of the contraceptive. Rifampin does not interact with oral contraceptives in a way that requires a higher dose. D: The incidence of adverse effects is not necessarily greater if the two drugs are taken together. Adverse effects are more related to individual drug reactions rather than a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Conjugation involves attaching a molecule to a drug to increase its solubility for elimination. Hydrolysis is not a conjugation process but rather a breakdown of molecules by water. Glucuronidation, sulfation, and methylation are all types of conjugation reactions. Glucuronidation adds a glucuronic acid, sulfation adds a sulfate group, and methylation adds a methyl group to the drug. So, C is the correct answer as it does not involve drug conjugation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because most local anesthetic agents consist of all three components: a lipophilic group (often an aromatic ring) for membrane penetration, an intermediate chain (usually containing an ester or amide) for linkage to the lipophilic group, and an amino group for interaction with the sodium channels. A is correct as the lipophilic group aids in crossing the lipid-rich cell membrane. B is correct as the intermediate chain connects the lipophilic group and amino group. C is correct as the amino group interacts with sodium channels to block nerve conduction. Therefore, all three components are essential for the local anesthetic mechanism of action.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Physostigmine is a cholinomimetic agent as it acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, leading to increased acetylcholine levels. 2. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that activates cholinergic receptors, mimicking the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. 3. Physostigmine is used in conditions like myasthenia gravis and glaucoma to enhance cholinergic activity. 4. Edrophonium is a short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used for diagnostic purposes, not a direct-acting cholinomimetic. 5. Carbachol is a non-selective cholinergic agonist used in ophthalmology and urology, but not directly related to direct-acting cholinomimetic agents.