ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.
Question 2 of 9
Not many bacterial species in nature form spores. Which of the following genera have this ability?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacillus, Clostridium. Both Bacillus and Clostridium are known to form spores. Bacillus species produce endospores, which are resistant structures for survival in harsh conditions, while Clostridium species also form spores for protection and dispersal. The other choices are incorrect because Borrelia and Treponema are spirochetes and do not form spores, Bacteroides and Fusobacterium are anaerobic bacteria that do not produce spores, and Bordetella and Brucella are non-spore forming bacteria as well.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presented with an abscess caused by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters point to Staphylococcus or Micrococcus. 2. Catalase-positive eliminates Streptococcus. 3. Coagulase-positive distinguishes Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Thus, the causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. - C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative. - D: Micrococcus luteus is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative.
Question 4 of 9
Influenza Viruses cannot be isolated in:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Agar media. Influenza viruses cannot be isolated in agar media because they require specific conditions present in laboratory animals, embryonated eggs, or cell cultures for successful isolation and propagation. Agar media lack the necessary components and environment needed for influenza virus replication. In laboratory animals, such as mice, the viruses can replicate and cause infection. Embryonated eggs provide a suitable environment for influenza virus growth and isolation due to the presence of necessary nutrients and factors. Cell cultures offer controlled conditions for virus propagation and study, making them a valuable tool in influenza virus research.
Question 5 of 9
What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: gram-positive cocci. Staphylococci and streptococci are both types of bacteria that have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining process, making them appear purple under a microscope, hence classified as gram-positive cocci. Choice B: gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall structure. Choice C: spirochetes is incorrect as spirochetes are spiral-shaped bacteria with unique motility mechanisms, distinct from the spherical shape of cocci. Choice D: anaerobic gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as anaerobic bacteria and do not have the typical characteristics of gram-negative cocci.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following pathogens can be transmitted through the placenta?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Listeria monocytogenes. This pathogen can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, leading to serious complications. Listeria can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or severe neonatal infections. Staphylococcus aureus and Corynebacterium diphtheriae do not typically cross the placenta. Choice D is incorrect because Listeria monocytogenes can indeed be transmitted through the placenta, unlike the other pathogens listed.
Question 8 of 9
Degenerative changes resulting from viral propagation in infected cell cultures are referred as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: cytopathic effect. When viruses infect cell cultures, they induce degenerative changes known as cytopathic effects, which include cell shrinkage, rounding, detachment, and cell death. This term specifically refers to the damage caused by viral replication within the cells. A: Cytolytic effect refers to the destruction of cells by viruses, which is a more specific type of cytopathic effect involving cell lysis. C: Cytotoxic effect typically refers to the toxic effects of substances on cells, not specifically related to viral propagation. D: The statement that all three answers are correct is incorrect as only option B accurately describes the degenerative changes resulting from viral propagation in infected cell cultures.
Question 9 of 9
An infectious diseases hospital admitted a veterinarian with assumed brucellosis. What serologic test can confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wright's agglutination reaction. For brucellosis diagnosis, this test detects antibodies against Brucella species. Wright's test specifically targets agglutinins, which are produced in response to Brucella infection. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Widal's test is used for typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi. C: Ascoli's test is for pneumococcal infections. D: Weigl's test is used for typhus fever caused by Rickettsia prowazekii.