ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured on Endo agar, revealing red colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A: Escherichia coli): 1. Endo agar selects for Gram-negative bacteria. 2. Red colonies on Endo agar indicate lactose fermentation, characteristic of E. coli. 3. E. coli is a common cause of pneumonia, especially in immunocompromised patients. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - B: Klebsiella pneumoniae: Typically forms mucoid colonies on agar. - C: Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Produces characteristic greenish-blue colonies on agar. - D: Proteus mirabilis: Does not typically ferment lactose, so would not produce red colonies on Endo agar.
Question 2 of 5
The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is marked, the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not
Question 3 of 5
Which bacteria are responsible for causing bacterial meningitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Bacterial meningitis can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae. These bacteria are common pathogens associated with meningitis. Each of them can lead to serious infections in the brain and spinal cord. Neisseria meningitidis is known for causing meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of H. influenzae meningitis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for pneumococcal meningitis. Therefore, since all three bacteria can cause bacterial meningitis, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can cause bacterial meningitis; it is not limited to just one specific type.
Question 4 of 5
A 45-year-old patient complains of body temperature rise up to 40oC, general weakness, headache, painfulness and spastic muscle contractions around the wound in the shin. He received this wound 5 days ago when working in his garden. He requested no medical care back then. What wound infection can be suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The patient's symptoms of muscle contractions, fever, and wound history suggest tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria commonly found in soil. The spastic muscle contractions around the wound are classic for tetanus due to the neurotoxin produced by the bacteria. General weakness and headache are also common symptoms. B: Anthrax is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms such as skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, and gastrointestinal symptoms. C: Erysipelas is characterized by red, swollen patches on the skin, not consistent with the symptoms described. D: Gram-positive is not a specific diagnosis but a broad category of bacteria. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, which is a Gram-positive bacterium, but this choice does not provide a specific infection diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.
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