A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour. This position helps prevent bleeding by applying pressure to the site. Elevating the head of the bed (A) is not necessary for this procedure. Applying a 2-inch gauze dressing (B) may disrupt the site and increase the risk of bleeding. Using half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound (C) is not recommended for bone marrow aspiration sites as it can lead to infection.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results, which client should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should see the client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds first because PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. A PT of 28 seconds is prolonged, indicating potential bleeding risk. This requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Choice A: A client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8 may indicate anticoagulant therapy but is not as urgent as a prolonged PT. Choice B: A platelet count of 128,000/mm³ is low but doesn't necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a prolonged PT. Choice D: A red blood cell count of 5.1 million/L is within normal range and does not indicate an urgent issue related to clotting or bleeding.

Question 3 of 5

Blinatumomab, a bispecific T-cell engaging molecule, is active against which CD antigen that is expressed on B-lymphoblasts?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Blinatumomab is a bispecific molecule designed to engage T-cells to target B-lymphoblasts. 2. It targets CD19, a B-cell-specific antigen expressed on B-lymphoblasts. 3. Engagement of T-cells via CD19 leads to targeted killing of B-lymphoblasts. 4. CD10, CD15, and CD20 are not specific to B-cells, making them incorrect choices. Summary: The correct answer is C (CD19) because blinatumomab's mechanism of action specifically targets B-lymphoblasts via CD19. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not have the same specificity for B-cells as CD19 does.

Question 4 of 5

A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]) were included in the study. What data structure is central line type?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nominal. Central line type is a nominal data structure because it represents categories without any inherent order or ranking. In this study, the central line types (port, PICC, TEC) are distinct categories with no numerical significance or order. They are simply different types of central lines used for medical purposes. Continuous (A) data involves numerical values with infinite possibilities, which is not the case here. Dichotomous (B) data consists of only two categories, while in this study there are three central line types. Ordinal (D) data involves categories with a specific order or ranking, which is not applicable to central line types as they do not have a natural order.

Question 5 of 5

A newborn infant develops jaundice on day of life 2. Labs are drawn, and she has a hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL with a reticulocyte count of 8%. Upon peripheral blood smear review, she is found to have bizarre red cell forms with significant polkilocytosis. Although her parents have normal blood counts, on review of their peripheral blood smears, they both have a moderate number of ovalocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the infant's red cell findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the infant likely has hereditary elliptocytosis, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the alpha-spectrin gene. Ovalocytes and polkilocytosis are characteristic of this condition. Since both parents have ovalocytes, it is likely that the infant inherited mutations from each parent, resulting in a more severe presentation. Anemia in hereditary elliptocytosis can improve over time due to compensatory mechanisms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe different genetic disorders (hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and pyruvate kinase deficiency, respectively) and do not match the clinical and family history provided.

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