ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with otosclerosis has significant hearing loss. What should the nurse do to best facilitate communication with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sit or stand in front of the patient when speaking. This choice is correct because it allows the patient with otosclerosis to directly see the nurse's face and lip movements, aiding in lip-reading and understanding speech. Sitting or standing in front of the patient also ensures better eye contact and reduces background noise interference. Choice B is incorrect because exaggerated lip and mouth movements may distort speech and make it harder for the patient to understand. Choice C is incorrect because standing in front of a light or window can create glare and make it difficult for the patient to see the nurse's face clearly. Choice D is incorrect because saying the patient's name loudly before starting to talk does not directly address the communication needs of a patient with otosclerosis.
Question 2 of 9
In teaching mothers-to-be about infant nutrition, which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because breast milk or formula is recommended for the first 4 to 6 months as it provides essential nutrients for infant growth and development. Choosing A, B, or C is incorrect as they pose health risks to infants - corn syrup is not necessary, cow's milk is not suitable for infants, and honey can cause botulism in infants under 1 year old. Breast milk or formula is the safest and most nutritionally balanced option for infants in the first few months of life.
Question 3 of 9
A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image and situational low self-esteem. What action by the patient would best indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and self-esteem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because discussing the future indicates acceptance and hope, a positive step towards improved body image and self-esteem. The patient is focusing on moving forward, which shows emotional growth and resilience. Choice A may provide temporary comfort but does not necessarily address underlying emotional issues. Choice C is related to pain management, not body image or self-esteem. Choice D suggests continued emotional distress rather than progress towards improved self-image.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing the patient’s meaning ofillness. Which area of focus by the nurse ispriority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because understanding how a patient perceives and reacts to their illness is crucial for providing holistic care. By focusing on the patient's perspective, the nurse can address their emotional, mental, and social needs. Choice B is incorrect as it only considers biological aspects. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on psychological processes. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the patient's perspective on illness. A holistic approach that considers the patient's meaning of illness is essential for providing patient-centered care.
Question 5 of 9
A patient develops a foodborne disease fromEscherichiacoli. When taking a health history, which food item will the nursemostlikely find the patient ingested?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Undercooked ground beef. Escherichia coli is commonly found in undercooked ground beef, especially if it is contaminated during processing. Ground beef must be cooked to a safe internal temperature to kill any harmful bacteria. Improperly home-canned food (choice A) can also cause foodborne illnesses, but E. coli is more commonly associated with undercooked ground beef. Soft cheese (choice C) is often linked to Listeria contamination, not E. coli. Custard (choice D) is a less likely source of E. coli compared to undercooked ground beef.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
Question 7 of 9
An advanced practice nurse has performed a Rinne test on a new patient. During the test, the patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient's hearing is likely normal. This interpretation is based on the normal Rinne test result, where air-conducted sound is expected to be louder than bone-conducted sound. This finding indicates that the patient has intact air conduction and no significant conductive hearing loss. Option B is incorrect because tinnitus is not directly related to the Rinne test results. Option C is incorrect as otosclerosis would typically present with abnormal Rinne test results showing bone-conducted sound to be louder. Option D is incorrect as sensorineural hearing loss would not typically affect the Rinne test results in this way.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is receiving opioids for pain. Which bowel assessment is a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Constipation. When a patient is receiving opioids, constipation is a common side effect due to decreased gut motility. It is a priority assessment because untreated constipation can lead to serious complications such as bowel obstruction. Monitoring for constipation allows for early intervention with stool softeners or laxatives to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Clostridium difficile - While important to consider in patients on antibiotics, it is not directly related to opioid use. C: Hemorrhoids - Although opioids can contribute to constipation which may exacerbate hemorrhoids, it is not the priority assessment. D: Diarrhea - Opioids typically cause constipation, so diarrhea is less likely to be a priority concern in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.