ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with otosclerosis has significant hearing loss. What should the nurse do to best facilitate communication with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sit or stand in front of the patient when speaking. This choice is correct because it allows the patient with otosclerosis to directly see the nurse's face and lip movements, aiding in lip-reading and understanding speech. Sitting or standing in front of the patient also ensures better eye contact and reduces background noise interference. Choice B is incorrect because exaggerated lip and mouth movements may distort speech and make it harder for the patient to understand. Choice C is incorrect because standing in front of a light or window can create glare and make it difficult for the patient to see the nurse's face clearly. Choice D is incorrect because saying the patient's name loudly before starting to talk does not directly address the communication needs of a patient with otosclerosis.
Question 2 of 9
Which behaviors indicate the nurse is using criticalthinking standards when communicating with patients? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uses humility. Critical thinking in nursing involves being open-minded, self-aware, and willing to consider different perspectives. Humility allows nurses to acknowledge their limitations, seek feedback, and continuously learn and improve. Instilling faith (A) may be important but does not directly relate to critical thinking standards. Self-confidence (C) can be beneficial, but excessive confidence can lead to closed-mindedness. Supportiveness (D) is valuable in patient care but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking standards. In summary, humility enables nurses to approach patient communication with an open and reflective mindset, essential for applying critical thinking standards effectively.
Question 3 of 9
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection. A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor. B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation. C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario. Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
Question 4 of 9
An adolescent is identified as having a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of his testes. The nurse knows that this adolescent will receive what medical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrocele. A hydrocele is the collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of the testes. This condition is common in newborns and can also occur in adolescents. Cryptorchidism (A) is the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum. Orchitis (B) is inflammation of the testicles. Prostatism (D) is a non-specific term related to prostate issues, not relevant to the given scenario. Therefore, the correct diagnosis for an adolescent with fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis of his testes is hydrocele.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is being discharged home from the ambulatory surgery center after an incisional biopsy of a mass in her left breast. What are the criteria for discharging this patient home? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Ambulating is a crucial postoperative activity to prevent complications like blood clots. 2. Understanding when to ambulate ensures the patient follows proper recovery guidelines. 3. Proper ambulation aids in preventing postoperative complications and promotes healing. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Having someone accompany the patient is important for support but not a strict criteria for discharge. C. While understanding activity restrictions is important, it is not a specific criteria for immediate discharge. D. Understanding care for the biopsy site is essential but not a strict criteria for immediate discharge. E. Removal of a urinary catheter is not typically related to discharge criteria for a breast biopsy.
Question 6 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.
Question 7 of 9
A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery the physician explained to the patient that after the surgery a source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. What is the placement of the source of radiation called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brachytherapy. Brachytherapy involves placing a radiation source near or directly into the tumor site. In this case, after the hysterectomy, the source of radiation is placed near the cervical cancer site to deliver targeted radiation therapy. This method helps reduce the risk of cancer recurrence by delivering high doses of radiation to the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissues. Choice A (Internal beam radiation) typically refers to a type of external radiation therapy where radiation beams are directed at the tumor from outside the body, not placed internally like brachytherapy. Choice B (Trachelectomy) is a surgical procedure that involves removal of the cervix while preserving the uterus, not related to radiation therapy. Choice D (External radiation) involves delivering radiation from outside the body using a machine, unlike brachytherapy where the radiation source is placed internally near the tumor site.
Question 8 of 9
A patient diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma has arrived on the neurologic unit. When planning the patients care, the nurse should be aware that the effects of the tumor will primarily depend on what variable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The specific hormones secreted by the tumor. Pituitary adenomas are known to secrete hormones that can lead to various endocrine disorders. Understanding the specific hormones secreted by the tumor is crucial in determining the clinical manifestations and planning appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary determinant of the effects of the tumor in this case is the hormonal activity rather than whether the tumor uses aerobic or anaerobic respiration, the patient's pre-existing health status, or whether the tumor is primary or metastatic.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling. A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures. C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy. D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.