ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with osteoarthritis of the hip undergoes surgical intervention with a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty (THA), patients are at an increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to factors such as immobility, surgery-related vascular damage, and hypercoagulability. DVT refers to the formation of blood clots in the deep veins, typically in the lower extremities. These clots can break loose and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE). Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of DVT is crucial in the immediate postoperative period to promptly detect and prevent the development of complications such as PE. Common signs of DVT include leg swelling, pain, warmth, and redness. Additionally, healthcare providers may employ preventive measures such as early ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulant therapy to reduce the risk of DVT post-THA surgery.
Question 2 of 9
Ms. Ruby 28 year old also a patient of Nurse Gladys is suffering from Rheumatic fever due to a previous streptococcal infection. In monitoring patient's status, the nurse should document which of the following TYPICAL manifestation EXCEPT ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Rheumatic fever, typical manifestations include an increase in body temperature, non-pruritic rashes, and migratory joint pains. Voluntary muscle spasm is not a typical manifestation of Rheumatic fever. The main clinical features of Rheumatic fever are related to the inflammation of the heart, joints, skin, and central nervous system. Muscle spasms are not a prominent feature of this condition. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these typical manifestations to effectively monitor and manage the patient's condition.
Question 3 of 9
The type of epidemiologic study that is used to describe a group of persons enrolled in a study who share some characteristic of interest and who are followed over a period of time to observe some health outcome is a/an:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cohort studies are types of epidemiological studies that involve a group of individuals who share a common characteristic or experience and are followed over time to observe the development of a particular health outcome. This type of study is useful in determining the incidence of a disease, identifying risk factors, and studying the natural history of a disease. Cohort studies allow researchers to investigate the relationship between exposure and outcome by following participants forward in time. It helps in establishing causality and is particularly useful for studying rare exposures or outcomes. In contrast, cross-sectional studies involve collecting data from a population at a single point in time, experimental studies involve interventions and control groups, and case-control studies involve comparing individuals with a particular health outcome (cases) to those without the outcome (controls) retrospectively.
Question 4 of 9
The patient asked Nurse Vera when is the best time to visit the clinic for her 1st prenatal care. Which should be the APPROPRIATE answer of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best time to visit the clinic for the first prenatal care is during the first trimester of pregnancy, ideally before the 12th week. This is because early prenatal care is crucial for monitoring the health of both the mother and the developing baby, identifying any risk factors or complications early on, and initiating important interventions such as prenatal vitamins and screenings. By starting prenatal care early in the first trimester, potential issues can be identified and addressed promptly, leading to better pregnancy outcomes. It is important for pregnant women to seek early prenatal care to ensure a healthy pregnancy and delivery.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 6 of 9
The QA team was alerted by the Administration, that they have to anticipate for a possible earthquake in the forthcoming days. As part of Safe Practice Environment (SPE) standards, which of the following are to be given PRIORITY attention by the team? I Electrical wires II Combustible materials III Entry, Exit of the building IV Infected waste materials
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits. Imaging reveals a hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding within the subarachnoid space, the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Patients typically present with a sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits due to the mass effect of the blood in the subarachnoid space. Imaging, such as a CT scan, can confirm the presence of the hemorrhagic lesion. Ischemic stroke results from a blockage in the blood vessels supplying the brain, leading to tissue infarction and neurological deficits. Subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, commonly seen following head trauma. Intracerebral hemorrhage involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself, often leading to focal neurological deficits.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types and is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a premalignant condition of the cervix that is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types. HPV infection is a major risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. CIN is typically detected on routine cervical screening tests such as Pap smears or HPV testing. If left untreated, CIN can progress to invasive cervical cancer. Therefore, the presence of high-risk HPV types in CIN lesions indicates an increased risk of developing cervical cancer.
Question 9 of 9
Patient Hydee asks how she could Distinguish between true and false labor? Which is NOT included among the factors in which the nurse should base her answer from?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The engagement of the fetus refers to the baby's head moving down into the mother's pelvis in preparation for birth. This factor is not typically used to distinguish between true and false labor because it is a sign of progress in labor rather than a defining characteristic of true labor. In contrast, the factors that are commonly used to differentiate between true and false labor include contractions (e.g., regularity, intensity, duration), cervical changes observed through vaginal examination (e.g., effacement and dilation), and monitoring vital signs.