A patient with osteoarthritis of the hip undergoes surgical intervention with a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty (THA), patients are at an increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to factors such as immobility, surgery-related vascular damage, and hypercoagulability. DVT refers to the formation of blood clots in the deep veins, typically in the lower extremities. These clots can break loose and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE). Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of DVT is crucial in the immediate postoperative period to promptly detect and prevent the development of complications such as PE. Common signs of DVT include leg swelling, pain, warmth, and redness. Additionally, healthcare providers may employ preventive measures such as early ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulant therapy to reduce the risk of DVT post-THA surgery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oxybutynin is a medication commonly used for the management of overactive bladder (OAB) symptoms such as urinary urgency and frequency. It belongs to a class of medications known as anticholinergics, which work by relaxing the bladder muscles and reducing bladder spasms. By doing so, it helps to decrease the symptoms of OAB, including frequent urination, sudden urges to urinate, and leakage. Oxybutynin can be taken orally in tablet form, as a transdermal patch, or as a gel, providing various options for patients based on their preferences and needs. Overall, oxybutynin is an effective treatment option for individuals experiencing overactive bladder symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, malaise, maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading to the trunk and extremities, along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, is highly suggestive of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) caused by Rickettsia rickettsii. RMSF is a tick-borne illness transmitted by the American dog tick, Rocky Mountain wood tick, and brown dog tick. The constellation of symptoms described aligns well with the typical presentation of RMSF. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, which presents with erythema migrans but does not typically cause leukopenia or thrombocytopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of severe malaria and would present with symptoms such as cyclic fevers, anemia, and jaundice but not the described rash distribution.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, a protozoan parasite that causes malaria. The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia align with the typical presentation of malaria. Additionally, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination is characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly P. falciparum, which causes the most severe form of malaria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a pregnant woman presenting with severe abdominal pain, syncope, signs of hypovolemic shock, and gestational age of 6 weeks, the most likely cause is an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. As the pregnancy grows and the tube stretches, it can lead to rupture, causing severe abdominal pain, internal bleeding, and signs of shock. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to consider ectopic pregnancy in any pregnant woman presenting with abdominal pain and signs of shock, especially in the first trimester.