ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with osteoarthritis of the hip undergoes surgical intervention with a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty (THA), patients are at an increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to factors such as immobility, surgery-related vascular damage, and hypercoagulability. DVT refers to the formation of blood clots in the deep veins, typically in the lower extremities. These clots can break loose and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE). Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of DVT is crucial in the immediate postoperative period to promptly detect and prevent the development of complications such as PE. Common signs of DVT include leg swelling, pain, warmth, and redness. Additionally, healthcare providers may employ preventive measures such as early ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulant therapy to reduce the risk of DVT post-THA surgery.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of collaboration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of collaboration is to accomplish shared goals and objectives. When individuals work together towards a common purpose, they can combine their different skills, perspectives, and resources to achieve outcomes that could not be accomplished by working alone. Collaborating enables team members to leverage each other's strengths and expertise, leading to more innovative and effective solutions. While camaraderie and efficiency are important aspects of collaboration, the ultimate aim is to successfully achieve the desired goals.
Question 3 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, indicating the presence of septic shock. In septic shock, systemic vasodilation and vascular hyporesponsiveness contribute to hypotension. Therefore, the primary management approach is to restore vascular tone and blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. Administering vasopressor medications (Choice A) is the crucial intervention to achieve this goal. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine or vasopressin, constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, helping to stabilize the patient in septic shock. While options B and C (performing blood cultures and initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics) are important for identifying the causative pathogen and treating the infection, they are secondary to the immediate need for hemodynamic support in septic shock. Prophylactic anticoagulation (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for
Question 4 of 9
Patient was visited by the anesthesiologist and explained the anesthesia for his surgery. Which of the following type of anesthesia would you expect to be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When the anesthesiologist visits a patient to explain the anesthesia for surgery, the most likely type of anesthesia to be ordered in this scenario would be general anesthesia. General anesthesia is a state of controlled unconsciousness where the patient is completely unaware and unresponsive during the procedure. This type of anesthesia is typically used for surgeries that are more complex, lengthy, or invasive, requiring the patient to be completely still and asleep throughout the operation.
Question 5 of 9
During the implementation process, the nurse should ensure a better assimilation of the teachings.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Creating a conducive time and place for the teachings is crucial during the implementation process to ensure better assimilation by the staff. By choosing a suitable time that does not clash with other responsibilities and providing a comfortable environment for learning, the nurse can enhance the staff's understanding and retention of the teachings. This approach helps in engaging the staff effectively and facilitating a productive learning experience.
Question 6 of 9
A professional nurse has a duty to know and respect the Patient's Bill of Rights. Which of the following is NOT included in the Patient's Bill of Rights? The right to/for ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While continuity of care is an important aspect of patient care, it is not explicitly included in the Patient's Bill of Rights. The Patient's Bill of Rights typically focuses on fundamental rights such as respectful care, privacy, confidentiality, and receiving complete and current information about their illness. Continuity of care is often addressed in healthcare policies and practices, but it is not a specific right outlined in the Patient's Bill of Rights.
Question 7 of 9
Which among the members of the multidisciplinary team that the nurse BEST to collaborate with when the patient can benefit the use of leg prosthesis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A physical therapist would be the best member of the multidisciplinary team to collaborate with when a patient can benefit from using a leg prosthesis. Physical therapists specialize in assessing and treating movement disorders, including those related to amputation and prosthetic use. They can help the patient improve their mobility, strength, balance, and overall functional abilities with the prosthesis. Physical therapists can provide training on how to use the prosthesis effectively, reduce the risk of falls, and optimize the patient's independence and quality of life. Collaborating with a physical therapist ensures that the patient receives comprehensive care tailored to their specific needs and goals related to using a leg prosthesis.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often leading to tooth wear, muscle pain, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bruxism is the dental condition characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often occurring during sleep. This habitual behavior can lead to tooth wear, muscle pain, headaches, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction. Dental caries (choice A) refers to tooth decay, while attrition (choice B) specifically refers to the wearing down of teeth due to forces like chewing. Periodontitis (choice D) is a condition involving inflammation and infection of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth. Among the choices provided, bruxism is the most fitting description for the condition characterized by tooth grinding and clenching.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is prescribed an antipsychotic medication for the management of schizophrenia. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antipsychotic medications, especially first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) as an adverse effect. EPS include symptoms such as muscle rigidity, tremors, akathisia (restlessness), and tardive dyskinesia (involuntary movements of the face and body). These symptoms are due to the medications' effects on the dopamine system in the brain. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the patient closely for EPS because they can be uncomfortable, distressing, and may impact the patient's quality of life and medication adherence. Early recognition and management of EPS are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient's overall well-being.