A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) presents with excessive daytime sleepiness, loud snoring, and witnessed apneic episodes during sleep. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing OSA and improving symptoms?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) presents with excessive daytime sleepiness, loud snoring, and witnessed apneic episodes during sleep. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing OSA and improving symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: CPAP therapy is considered the gold standard treatment for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and is the most appropriate intervention for managing OSA and improving symptoms. CPAP therapy involves using a machine that delivers a continuous flow of air through a mask worn over the nose or mouth during sleep. This air pressure helps keep the airway open, preventing the collapse that causes apneas and snoring during sleep.

Question 2 of 9

Endocrine changes often result in a bulimic patient. Which of the following would be an expected change in Sherry?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Endocrine changes in a bulimic patient, such as Sherry, can lead to disruptions in the pituitary gland's function. Hypopituitarism refers to a disorder in which the pituitary gland does not produce one or more of its hormones adequately. This can result in hormonal imbalances and have various effects on the body's functions. In Sherry's case, developing hypopituitarism would be an expected change due to the endocrine disruptions associated with bulimia. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and address these endocrine changes in bulimic patients to prevent further complications.

Question 3 of 9

Upon admission for an appendectomy, the patient provides the nurse with a document that specifies instructions his healthcare team should follow in the event he is unable to communicate these wishes postoperatively. This document is best known as a/an:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: An advance directive is a legal document that specifies a person's healthcare preferences and instructions for medical treatment in the event they are unable to communicate their wishes. It typically includes decisions about life-sustaining treatments, resuscitation, and end-of-life care. In the scenario provided, the document provided by the patient to the nurse outlining his healthcare team's instructions postoperatively indicates that he has an advance directive in place to guide his medical care if necessary. In contrast, informed consent is a process in which a patient gives permission for medical treatment after being informed about the risks, benefits, and alternatives. Patient's Bill of Rights outlines the patient's rights within the healthcare system, and an insurance card provides information about the patient's insurance coverage.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is presenting with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina. Additionally, ST-segment depression on ECG is a common finding in patients with stable angina. Stable angina is typically caused by coronary artery disease, which leads to partial obstruction of the coronary arteries resulting in inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle during periods of increased demand (such as exertion). The chest pain is usually predictable and reproducible, occurring with similar intensity and duration during episodes of exertion. Rest or nitroglycerin can help relieve the symptoms by increasing coronary blood flow. It is important to differentiate stable angina from unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction, which have different management and prognostic implications.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non- Hodgkin's lymphoma is that:_________________

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: One of the major differences between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable, while non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is typically not curable. Hodgkin's lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are not found in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Additionally, Hodgkin's lymphoma tends to spread in a more orderly and predictable manner through the lymph nodes, making it easier to treat and potentially cure with the appropriate combination of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and stem cell transplant. On the other hand, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is a diverse group of lymphomas that can vary greatly in presentation, behavior, and response to treatment, with some subtypes being more aggressive and resistant to treatment. Therefore, the potential for cure is higher in Hodgkin's lymphoma compared to non-Hodgkin's lymph

Question 6 of 9

you find Ms. C in her room running and trotting around for about the last 30 minutes. What is the BEST response to give her at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best response is to ask Ms. C why she is running and trotting around the room. This approach is empathetic and allows for open communication to understand her behavior. It is important to gather information before jumping to conclusions or making threats about changing her exercise program or eating habits. By showing concern and curiosity, you can address the situation in a supportive and constructive manner.

Question 7 of 9

A 30-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic ultrasound, a chocolate cyst is visualized within the ovary. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The scenario described in the question is most indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a gynecological condition in which tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside of the uterus. Classic symptoms of endometriosis include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. The presence of a "chocolate cyst" (also known as an endometrioma) within the ovary on pelvic ultrasound is a characteristic finding in endometriosis. These cysts are filled with old blood, giving them a dark, chocolate-like appearance on imaging. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) typically presents with irregular periods, signs of hyperandrogenism, and multiple small follicles on ultrasound. Ovarian torsion and ovarian cyst rupture would present with acute-onset symptoms and may not necessarily be associated with cyclic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea as described in the

Question 8 of 9

As a QA nurse, which of the following can Nurse Jen adopts as a concurrent evaluation of patient's outcomes in the unit? I Direct observation of patient's condition. II Patient's interview in the unit. III Face to face interview with nursing staff. IV Nursing audit from the patient's chart.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 9 of 9

Friendly but professional overtures have finally made Marlene open up her circumstances to the nurse, including their financial difficulty. What has been established at this time?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Marlene opening up to the nurse about their financial difficulty indicates that she feels comfortable enough to share personal information with the nurse. This signals the establishment of a trusting relationship between Marlene and the nurse, as Marlene feels safe and supported enough to disclose sensitive information. Building trust is a crucial aspect of any professional relationship, especially in healthcare settings, as it fosters open communication, encourages honesty, and ultimately leads to better outcomes for the patient. It is an essential foundation for providing effective care and support to individuals in need.

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