ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 2 of 9
A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the familys psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient. This is a common cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life because denial can lead to unrealistic expectations, difficulty in making important decisions, and inadequate planning for end-of-life care. This can result in unnecessary suffering for the patient and added stress for the family. Incorrect choices: A: Poor communication between the family and the care team can contribute to challenges in providing appropriate care but may not be the primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life. C: Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family, while important for psychosocial support, may not directly cause patient care dilemmas. D: Conflict between family members can complicate decision-making processes, but it is not necessarily a primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life.
Question 3 of 9
A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer. B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast. C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.
Question 4 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with severe environmental allergies is scheduled for an immunotherapy injection. What should be included in teaching the patient about this treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Immunotherapy injections can cause allergic reactions. Step 2: Monitoring post-injection is crucial to detect and manage any potential adverse reactions promptly. Step 3: Staying in the clinic for 30 minutes allows for immediate intervention if needed. Step 4: This ensures patient safety and reduces the risk of severe reactions. Summary: A: Epinephrine is not typically given before immunotherapy injections. C: Therapeutic response may take longer than 3 months to show. D: Immunotherapy is usually given via subcutaneous route, not intravenous.
Question 6 of 9
A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. This method directly measures postoperative blood loss and allows for accurate monitoring. It provides quantitative data to assess the severity of hemorrhage. A: Having the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet does not directly measure blood loss and may not provide accurate monitoring. C: Swabbing the patient's perineum for the presence of blood is not as accurate as directly counting and inspecting perineal pads. D: Leaving the patient's perineum open to air does not provide a method for quantifying blood loss and may not be as reliable as inspecting perineal pads.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) because the patient's immune system will be severely compromised post-transplant, leading to a high risk of infections. It is crucial to prioritize infection prevention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because while fatigue is common in cancer patients, it is not the priority in this case where infection risk is higher. Choice B is incorrect as altered nutrition can be addressed after managing the risk for infection. Choice D is incorrect as body image disturbance is important but not as critical as preventing infections in this highly vulnerable patient population.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 9 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.