ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 2 of 9
Following a motorcycle accident, a 17-year-old man is brought to the ED. What physical assessment findings related to the ear should be reported by the nurse immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Clear, watery fluid draining from the ear post-accident indicates a possible cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as meningitis. 2. CSF leak can result from a basilar skull fracture, common in head injuries like motorcycle accidents. 3. Prompt reporting of this finding by the nurse is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of potential life-threatening complications. Summary: A: Visualizing the malleus during otoscopic examination is normal and not an immediate concern in this scenario. B: A pearly gray tympanic membrane is a normal finding and does not indicate a serious issue post-accident. C: Tenderness in the mastoid area may suggest injury but is not as urgent as clear, watery fluid drainage indicative of a CSF leak.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by organic factors, such as diabetes, which affects blood flow and nerve function. Diabetes can lead to damage of blood vessels and nerves, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. Testosterone deficiency (choice B) can also contribute to erectile dysfunction, but it is not an organic cause. Anxiety (choice C) and depression (choice D) are psychological factors that can lead to erectile dysfunction, not organic causes. Parkinsonism (choice E) can affect sexual function, but it is not a common organic cause of erectile dysfunction.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 5 of 9
Which behaviors indicate the student nurse hasa good understanding of confidentiality and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Selectall that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: - Giving a change-of-shift report to the oncoming nurse about the patient is an appropriate action that maintains confidentiality by only sharing necessary patient information with authorized healthcare professionals. - A: Writing the patient’s room number and date of birth on a paper for school is a breach of confidentiality as it exposes sensitive patient information to unauthorized individuals. - B: Printing/copying material from the patient’s health record for a graded care plan is also a breach of confidentiality as it involves sharing patient information without proper authorization. - C: Reviewing assigned patient’s record and another unassigned patient’s record is a violation of HIPAA as it involves accessing patient information that is not necessary for the nurse's duties, risking unauthorized disclosure.
Question 6 of 9
A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" This response acknowledges the patient's anxiety and invites him to explore his reasons for wanting to smoke, opening up a dialogue and potentially uncovering underlying issues. It also avoids judgment or direct orders, fostering a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: "Smoking is the reason you are here." - This response is blaming and may increase the patient's guilt or anxiety, hindering effective communication. B: "The doctor left orders for you not to smoke." - This response is authoritative and may lead to resistance or defensiveness from the patient, rather than addressing his concerns. D: "Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated." - This response is unclear and may send mixed messages to the patient, potentially leading to confusion or misunderstanding.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a brain tumor has begun to exhibit signs of cachexia. What subsequent assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment of nutritional status. Cachexia is a complex metabolic syndrome characterized by weight loss, muscle wasting, and weakness commonly seen in cancer patients. Assessing the patient's nutritional status is crucial to address the underlying causes of cachexia and to develop an appropriate management plan. This assessment includes evaluating dietary intake, weight changes, body composition, and nutritional deficiencies. Choice A: Assessment of peripheral nervous function is not the priority in this case as cachexia is primarily related to metabolic and nutritional issues rather than peripheral nervous system dysfunction. Choice B: Assessment of cranial nerve function is also not the priority since cachexia is not directly associated with cranial nerve dysfunction. Choice D: Assessment of respiratory status may be important in general patient care, but in this case, addressing the underlying nutritional issues that are contributing to cachexia should be the priority.
Question 8 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 9 of 9
An older adult with a recent history of mixed hearing loss has been diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What should this patient be taught about this diagnosis? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cholesteatomas are often the result of chronic otitis media. Chronic otitis media can lead to the formation of cholesteatomas, which are noncancerous but can cause complications if left untreated. Cholesteatomas do not resolve spontaneously (A), are not the result of metastasis (B), do not typically cause intractable neuropathic pain (D), and usually require surgical removal to prevent complications (E). Therefore, educating the patient about the association between chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma is essential for understanding the diagnosis and potential treatment options.