A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

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ATI Mental Health Practice A Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

Question 2 of 9

In assessing a patient for signs of serotonin syndrome, which of the following symptoms would be consistent with this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms: hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia (choice A) are not typical findings in serotonin syndrome. Hypotension, tachycardia, and hypothermia (choice C) are also not consistent with serotonin syndrome. Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperthermia (choice D) do not align with the characteristic symptoms of serotonin syndrome. Recognizing the key symptoms of serotonin syndrome is crucial for prompt identification and intervention to prevent serious complications.

Question 3 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack. Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.

Question 4 of 9

In a patient with bipolar disorder, which symptom would indicate a manic episode?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased need for sleep. A decreased need for sleep is a hallmark symptom of a manic episode in bipolar disorder. During manic episodes, individuals may experience significantly reduced sleep without feeling tired, which can lead to increased energy levels, impulsivity, and other manic symptoms. Excessive sleeping (choice A) is more indicative of depression rather than mania. Low self-esteem (choice B) and anhedonia (choice D) are also more commonly associated with depressive episodes rather than manic episodes in bipolar disorder.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Memory loss, particularly short-term memory loss, is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT can affect memory due to its impact on brain function during and after treatment. While the memory issues are often temporary and tend to improve over time, they are important considerations when discussing the risks and benefits of ECT with patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, insomnia, and increased appetite are not common side effects of ECT.

Question 6 of 9

During a panic attack, what is the nurse's priority intervention for a patient with panic disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority intervention for the nurse is to provide reassurance and stay with the patient. This action helps reduce fear and provides a sense of safety, which can aid in calming the patient and preventing further escalation of the panic attack. Encouraging the patient to verbalize their feelings (Choice A) may be beneficial after the acute phase of the panic attack. Leaving the patient alone (Choice C) may increase feelings of abandonment and escalate the panic attack. Distracting the patient with a task (Choice D) is not recommended during a panic attack as it may divert attention but not address the underlying anxiety and fear.

Question 7 of 9

Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.

Question 8 of 9

Which therapeutic approach is considered most effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive processing therapy is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that has been shown to be highly effective in treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). This therapy focuses on helping individuals process and make sense of their traumatic experiences, leading to symptom reduction and improved coping mechanisms. Psychoanalysis, medication management, and group therapy can be beneficial in some cases, but cognitive processing therapy is specifically tailored for addressing the symptoms and underlying causes of PTSD. Psychoanalysis may not be as effective for PTSD due to its focus on unconscious conflicts rather than trauma processing. Medication management can be useful as an adjunct to therapy but does not address the core issues of PTSD. Group therapy can provide support but may not offer the individualized approach that cognitive processing therapy provides.

Question 9 of 9

Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

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