ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with low vision has called the clinic and asked the nurse for help with acquiring some lowvision aids. What else can the nurse offer to help this patient manage his low vision?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient has diabetes. Diabetes can lead to diabetic retinopathy, a common cause of low vision. By knowing the patient's medical history, the nurse can recommend appropriate low vision aids and refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for further evaluation and management. Incorrect choices: A: The patient uses OTC NSAIDs - NSAIDs are not relevant to managing low vision. B: The patient has a history of stroke - A history of stroke is not directly related to low vision. D: The patient has Asian ancestry - Ancestry is not a factor in managing low vision.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan to reduce data entryerrors and maintain confidentiality. Which guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement an automatic sign-off. This guideline helps reduce data entry errors by ensuring that all entries are completed and saved before exiting the system, thus maintaining confidentiality. Bypassing the firewall (A) would compromise data security. Creating a password with just letters (C) may not be secure enough. Using a programmed speed-dial key when faxing (D) is unrelated to reducing data entry errors or maintaining confidentiality.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is admitting a 55-year-old male patient diagnosed with a retinal detachment in his left eye. While assessing this patient, what characteristic symptom would the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct: 1. Retinal detachment causes traction on the retina. 2. Traction on the retina can stimulate photoreceptors. 3. Stimulation of photoreceptors can lead to perception of flashing lights. 4. Therefore, the characteristic symptom of retinal detachment is flashing lights in the visual field. Summary: B: Sudden eye pain is not a characteristic symptom of retinal detachment. C: Loss of color vision is not typically associated with retinal detachment. D: Colored halos around lights are more indicative of conditions like glaucoma or corneal edema, not retinal detachment.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing the health care disparitiesamong population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accessibility of health care services. The nurse is monitoring disparities in access to healthcare services among different population groups. This is important as it can influence health outcomes and the prevalence of complications. Outcomes of health conditions (B) are impacted by access to care. Prevalence of complications (C) and incidence of diseases (D) can also be influenced by disparities in accessing healthcare services. However, the primary focus of the nurse's assessment in this scenario is on the accessibility of healthcare services as a key factor contributing to health care disparities.
Question 5 of 9
A hearing-impaired patient is scheduled to have an MRI. What would be important for the nurse to remember when caring for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hearing-impaired patient is likely unable to hear during an MRI due to loud noises. 2. Nurse needs to use alternative communication methods like writing or gestures. 3. Sign language interpreter may not be necessary for an MRI. 4. Lip reading may be challenging due to the noisy MRI environment. 5. Interaction should be adapted to accommodate the patient's communication needs.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. This manifests as drooping of the eyelid and corner of the mouth, difficulty smiling or closing the eye. Tinnitus (A) is ringing in the ears, not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Pain at the base of the tongue (C) is not a typical manifestation of Bell's palsy. Diplopia (D) is double vision, which is not a primary symptom of Bell's palsy. Therefore, the correct manifestation to address in the plan of care for a patient with Bell's palsy is facial paralysis.
Question 7 of 9
A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patients blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report to the emergency department or employee health department. 1. Immediate action is crucial after exposure to HIV-positive blood. 2. Reporting to the emergency department or employee health department ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate management. 3. The supervisor should also be informed to initiate the necessary protocols. 4. The other choices are incorrect: - A: Chlorhexidine may not be sufficient for post-exposure prophylaxis. - C: Hydrocolloid dressing is not appropriate for managing needlestick injuries. - D: Following up with the primary care provider may cause delays in receiving timely post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 8 of 9
One aspect of the nurses comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uplifting memories. When assessing hope in a terminally ill patient, identifying uplifting memories can foster hope by providing emotional support, positive experiences, and a sense of purpose. Memories can inspire optimism and comfort in difficult times. B: Ignoring negative outcomes is incorrect as it does not address the patient's emotional needs or promote coping strategies. C: Envisioning one specific outcome is incorrect because hope should encompass a range of possibilities, not just one specific outcome. D: Avoiding an actual or potential threat is incorrect as it focuses on avoidance rather than on promoting positive emotions and psychological well-being.
Question 9 of 9
Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. The only known cure for preeclampsia is the delivery of the fetus, as this condition typically resolves after giving birth. Since preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby, delivering the fetus is the most effective way to stop the progression of the condition. Magnesium sulfate (choice A) is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia but does not cure the condition. Antihypertensive medications (choice C) are used to manage blood pressure in preeclampsia but do not cure it. Administration of aspirin (choice D) is used for prevention, not as a cure for preeclampsia.