ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with longstanding COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain an ultrasound of the liver. This is the most appropriate next step to assess the patient's enlarged liver in the context of COPD. Ultrasound can provide detailed images of the liver to identify potential causes of enlargement, such as fatty liver disease or liver cirrhosis. Percussing the lower border (Choice A) or measuring the span of the liver (Choice B) may provide some information but are less specific and may not identify the underlying cause. Ordering a hepatitis panel (Choice C) would focus only on viral hepatitis as a potential cause, while an ultrasound can provide a broader evaluation of liver structure and function.
Question 2 of 9
On examination of the neck, a dome-shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the characteristics of the lesion described - dome-shaped, in dermis, benign, closed sac attached to epidermis. Step 2: A cutaneous cyst fits all these characteristics - it is a benign closed sac in the dermis with attachment to the epidermis. Step 3: Keloid (A) is an overgrowth of scar tissue, not a closed sac lesion. Tophi (B) are deposits of uric acid crystals, not a sac. Chondrodermatitis (D) is inflammation of cartilage and skin, not a closed sac lesion. Summary: A cutaneous cyst is the correct choice as it matches all the characteristics given, while the other options do not fit the description provided.
Question 3 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.
Question 4 of 9
Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are associated with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage
Question 6 of 9
Symptoms associated with small bowel obstruction usually include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting and pain. Small bowel obstruction typically leads to vomiting due to the blockage preventing food from passing through. Pain occurs as the intestine tries to push against the obstruction. Nausea and diarrhea (choice A) are more common in large bowel obstructions. Hematemesis and bloody stool (choice C) suggest bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Indigestion and anorexia (choice D) are not specific to small bowel obstruction. Therefore, the combination of vomiting and pain is indicative of small bowel obstruction.
Question 7 of 9
Bill, a 55-year-old man, presents with pain in his epigastrium which lasts for 30 minutes or more at a time and has started recently. Which of the following should be considered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Bill's symptoms of epigastric pain lasting 30 minutes or more can be indicative of peptic ulcer, pancreatitis, or myocardial ischemia. Peptic ulcer can cause epigastric pain, pancreatitis presents with severe epigastric pain, and myocardial ischemia can manifest as epigastric discomfort. Considering all these possibilities is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all potential causes of Bill's symptoms. It is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management.
Question 8 of 9
Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bone marrow examination. Acute lymphocytic leukemia is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow's ability to produce normal blood cells. A bone marrow examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis by analyzing the bone marrow cells for abnormality. A complete blood count (choice A) can show abnormalities in blood cell counts but cannot confirm leukemia. Magnetic resonance imaging (choice B) and nuclear bone scan (choice C) are imaging tests that can show bone abnormalities but are not specific for diagnosing leukemia.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: One breast larger than the other is most likely benign on breast examination. This is because breast asymmetry is a common and typically benign finding in women. It is important to note that a significant difference in breast size may warrant further evaluation, but in general, slight variations in size are normal. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange is concerning for peau d'orange appearance, which can be a sign of underlying breast cancer. C: One nipple inverted can be a sign of an underlying breast issue, such as a mass or tumor. D: One breast with a dimple when the patient leans forward can be a sign of an underlying breast abnormality, such as a tumor pulling on the skin. In summary, breast asymmetry (Choice B) is the most likely benign finding, while the other choices may indicate underlying breast issues that require further evaluation.