ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with longstanding COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain an ultrasound of the liver. This is the most appropriate next step to assess the patient's enlarged liver in the context of COPD. Ultrasound can provide detailed images of the liver to identify potential causes of enlargement, such as fatty liver disease or liver cirrhosis. Percussing the lower border (Choice A) or measuring the span of the liver (Choice B) may provide some information but are less specific and may not identify the underlying cause. Ordering a hepatitis panel (Choice C) would focus only on viral hepatitis as a potential cause, while an ultrasound can provide a broader evaluation of liver structure and function.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is true about cultural humility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cultural humility emphasizes recognizing power imbalances and fostering interpersonal sensitivity through partnerships with and learning from patients. This approach encourages self-awareness, openness, and willingness to engage in respectful dialogues. Option A is incorrect because cultural humility is not solely achieved through professional development courses. Option B is incorrect as anyone, regardless of their background, can practice cultural humility. Option D is incorrect as cultural humility does consider the impacts of structural factors on health disparities, including biological, socioeconomic, and racial influences.
Question 3 of 9
Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Migraines with aura. Estrogen in contraceptives can increase the risk of stroke in patients with migraines with aura due to its effect on blood clotting. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in these patients to reduce the risk of adverse cardiovascular events. Choices A, C, and D do not have a direct contraindication to estrogen-progestin contraceptives based on current guidelines.
Question 4 of 9
Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.
Question 5 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.
Question 6 of 9
What was the primary significance of the Crookes tube in the development of modern imaging technologies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It was the first device to produce X-rays. The Crookes tube, invented by William Crookes, was crucial in the development of modern imaging technologies because it was the first device to produce X-rays. X-rays revolutionized medical diagnostics and imaging, leading to significant advancements in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary significance of the Crookes tube was its role in producing X-rays, not demonstrating electromagnetic radiation principles, paving the way for the electron microscope, or advancements in nuclear medicine.
Question 7 of 9
Which is true of the pectinate or dentate line?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pectinate or dentate line is the border between the anal canal and the rectum. This is true because it represents the transition between the endoderm-derived upper anal canal and the ectoderm-derived lower anal canal. It is an important anatomical landmark in colorectal surgery and in distinguishing different pathologies in the anal region. Choice A is incorrect because the pectinate or dentate line is not typically palpable. Choice B is incorrect as it does not demarcate areas supplied by different nervous systems. Choice D is incorrect as the pectinate or dentate line is visible on proctoscopic examination due to its distinct appearance.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
All of the following about the Medicare Part D prescription medication benefit plan are true except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because beneficiaries do have out-of-pocket expenses for each prescription filled under Medicare Part D. This is typically in the form of copayments or coinsurance. A: Medicare Advantage plans often include Part D coverage, making statement A true. B: There are indeed multiple companies offering Part D plans, so statement B is true. C: The monthly premium for Part D coverage can vary, but in 2019 it was indeed around $30, making statement C true as well.