ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients. Rationale: A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients. D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
Question 2 of 9
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection. A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor. B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation. C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario. Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
Question 3 of 9
A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of consistent and correct condom use in preventing HIV transmission. Here's the rationale: 1. Abstinence is the most effective way to prevent HIV, but since the teen is sexually active, abstinence may not be feasible for her. 2. Using condoms consistently and correctly is the next best method for preventing HIV transmission during sexual activity. 3. Choice A is incorrect because it implies that using condoms is not effective, which is not true. 4. Choice B is incorrect because it only mentions female condoms, while both male and female condoms can be effective in preventing HIV. 5. Choice C is incorrect because while new prevention methods are being researched, the established method of consistent condom use remains the most effective.
Question 4 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with AIDS complicated by chronic diarrhea. What nursing intervention would be appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain a stool culture to identify possible pathogens. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention because chronic diarrhea in a patient with AIDS can be caused by various pathogens such as parasites, bacteria, or viruses. By obtaining a stool culture, the healthcare team can identify the specific pathogen responsible for the diarrhea and initiate targeted treatment. A: Positioning the patient in the high Fowler's position is not directly related to addressing the underlying cause of chronic diarrhea in this patient. B: Temporarily eliminating animal protein from the patient's diet may not be necessary or effective in treating chronic diarrhea without knowing the specific cause identified through stool culture. C: Making sure the patient eats raw fruit is not recommended as raw fruits can sometimes worsen diarrhea due to their high fiber content and potential for carrying pathogens. In summary, obtaining a stool culture is the most appropriate intervention as it helps identify the specific pathogen causing the diarrhea, while the other options do not directly address the underlying cause.
Question 6 of 9
Which patient ismostat risk for increased peristalsis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Stress, like having three final examinations on the same day, can lead to increased peristalsis due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. This can result in faster movement of food through the digestive system. The other choices are incorrect because: A - Ignoring the urge to defecate does not directly relate to increased peristalsis. C - Major depressive disorder is more likely to be associated with decreased peristalsis due to the effects of stress on the body. D - Elderly individuals tend to have reduced peristalsis due to age-related changes in the digestive system.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse practitioner assesses the patient and diagnoses Gardnerella vaginalis. What would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. This is correct because Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, which is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. By advising the patient of this, the nurse practitioner can provide education on the condition and treatment options. B: Discussing the effect of this diagnosis on the patient's fertility is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is not typically associated with fertility issues. C: Documenting the vaginal discharge as normal is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is indicative of an abnormal vaginal flora imbalance. D: Administering acyclovir as ordered is incorrect as acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
Question 8 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with breast cancer states that her physician suspects regional lymph node involvement and told her that there are signs of metastatic disease. The nurse learns that the patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. What is an implication of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Stage IV breast cancer indicates distant metastasis, making the patient ineligible for curative surgery. Treatment for stage IV focuses on palliative care to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Summary of Other Choices: B: Stage IV breast cancer is not considered highly treatable as it has spread beyond the breast and nearby lymph nodes, making it more challenging to cure. C: There is no evidence to suggest that stage IV breast cancer will self-resolve. The prognosis for metastatic breast cancer is typically poor. D: The 5-year survival rate for stage IV breast cancer is generally lower than 15%, making this choice incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of condoms to prevent infecting others. This is important because PID is a sexually transmitted infection and using condoms can help prevent transmission to sexual partners. It is crucial to address this topic to ensure the patient understands the importance of safe sex practices. The other choices are incorrect: B: Appropriate use of antibiotics - While antibiotics are used to treat PID, this choice does not address self-care education for prevention. C: Taking measures to prevent pregnancy - While important for overall health, preventing pregnancy is not directly related to self-care for PID. D: The need for a Pap smear every 3 months - Pap smears are not directly related to PID management or prevention. E: The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms - Weight loss is not a direct self-care measure for managing or preventing PID.