ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients. Rationale: A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients. D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is receiving opioids for pain. Which bowel assessment is a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Constipation. When a patient is receiving opioids, constipation is a common side effect due to decreased gut motility. It is a priority assessment because untreated constipation can lead to serious complications such as bowel obstruction. Monitoring for constipation allows for early intervention with stool softeners or laxatives to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Clostridium difficile - While important to consider in patients on antibiotics, it is not directly related to opioid use. C: Hemorrhoids - Although opioids can contribute to constipation which may exacerbate hemorrhoids, it is not the priority assessment. D: Diarrhea - Opioids typically cause constipation, so diarrhea is less likely to be a priority concern in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient has a history of hypertension. Hypertension is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction as it can lead to reduced blood flow to the penis, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. High blood pressure can damage blood vessels and affect the circulation necessary for an erection. Other choices are less likely to directly contribute to erectile dysfunction. A: UTI treatment is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction. C: Age alone is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction, although it can increase the risk. D: While a sedentary lifestyle can impact overall health, it is less likely to directly cause erectile dysfunction compared to hypertension.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with multiple food and environmental allergies tells the nurse that he is frustrated and angry about having to be so watchful all the time and wonders if it is really worth it. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it shows empathy and offers the patient an opportunity to express their feelings. By acknowledging the patient's frustration and anger, the nurse validates their emotions and creates a safe space for communication. This response promotes trust and understanding, which are crucial in building a therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect because it immediately jumps to teaching coping strategies without addressing the patient's emotional state. Choice C is incorrect as it generalizes the patient's feelings without directly engaging with their specific concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it sounds dismissive and may make the patient feel judged or misunderstood. These responses lack the empathetic approach needed to effectively support the patient in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery the physician explained to the patient that after the surgery a source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. What is the placement of the source of radiation called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brachytherapy. Brachytherapy involves placing a radiation source near or directly into the tumor site. In this case, after the hysterectomy, the source of radiation is placed near the cervical cancer site to deliver targeted radiation therapy. This method helps reduce the risk of cancer recurrence by delivering high doses of radiation to the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissues. Choice A (Internal beam radiation) typically refers to a type of external radiation therapy where radiation beams are directed at the tumor from outside the body, not placed internally like brachytherapy. Choice B (Trachelectomy) is a surgical procedure that involves removal of the cervix while preserving the uterus, not related to radiation therapy. Choice D (External radiation) involves delivering radiation from outside the body using a machine, unlike brachytherapy where the radiation source is placed internally near the tumor site.
Question 6 of 9
Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of condoms to prevent infecting others. This is important because PID is a sexually transmitted infection and using condoms can help prevent transmission to sexual partners. It is crucial to address this topic to ensure the patient understands the importance of safe sex practices. The other choices are incorrect: B: Appropriate use of antibiotics - While antibiotics are used to treat PID, this choice does not address self-care education for prevention. C: Taking measures to prevent pregnancy - While important for overall health, preventing pregnancy is not directly related to self-care for PID. D: The need for a Pap smear every 3 months - Pap smears are not directly related to PID management or prevention. E: The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms - Weight loss is not a direct self-care measure for managing or preventing PID.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is inserting a catheter into a female patient. When the nurse inserts the catheter, no urine is obtained. The nurse suspects the catheter is not in the urethra. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct choice is C because if no urine is obtained, it indicates that the catheter is not in the urethra. The nurse should remove the catheter, wipe with alcohol to maintain cleanliness, and reinsert after lubrication to ensure proper placement in the urethra. This step-by-step approach allows for a more accurate catheter insertion and prevents potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as discarding the catheter and starting over without addressing the issue does not solve the problem. Choice B is incorrect as filling the balloon with sterile water is not relevant to the situation of catheter misplacement. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the catheter in the vagina can lead to infection and is not a recommended practice.
Question 8 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection- related death in oncology patients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the integrity of the patients oral mucosa regularly. Myelosuppression leads to decreased white blood cells, increasing infection risk. The oral mucosa can be a common site for infections. Regular assessment helps in early detection and intervention. A: Encouraging small meals does not directly address infection risk in myelosuppressed patients. B: Providing skin care is important for overall patient care but does not directly address the leading cause of infection-related death. C: Assisting with hygiene is important but does not specifically target the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients.