ATI RN
advanced health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath, fatigue, and swelling in the legs. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Worsening heart failure. Shortness of breath, fatigue, and leg swelling are common symptoms of heart failure. Monitoring for signs of worsening heart failure, such as increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased exercise tolerance, is crucial. Pulmonary embolism (A) presents with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, not typically associated with chronic heart failure. Renal failure (B) may present with decreased urine output and electrolyte imbalances. Liver failure (C) may present with jaundice and changes in mental status. However, given the symptoms presented by the patient, monitoring for worsening heart failure is the most appropriate choice.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with osteoarthritis about managing their condition. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because avoiding physical activity to prevent joint strain is not recommended for managing osteoarthritis. Exercise is crucial for strengthening joints and improving flexibility. Choice A is correct as heat or cold therapy can help relieve joint pain. Choice B is correct as taking pain medication regularly can help manage symptoms. Choice C is correct as regular exercise is important for maintaining joint health. In summary, avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach for managing osteoarthritis, unlike the other choices which are beneficial for the condition.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following are considered second-level priority problems?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abnormal laboratory values. Second-level priority problems are those that are important to the patient's health but may not be life-threatening. Abnormal laboratory values fall into this category as they indicate an underlying health issue that needs attention. Low self-esteem (A) and lack of knowledge (B) are typically considered third-level priority problems, as they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health. Severely abnormal vital signs (D) are first-level priority problems, as they indicate an acute and potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the definition of second-level priority problems.
Question 4 of 9
A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of prior suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 4.5 kg (10 lb) in the past month. Which of the following is the nurse's best response in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Are you feeling so hopeless that you feel like hurting yourself now?" This response directly addresses the patient's suicidal ideation and assesses the immediate risk of harm. It shows the nurse's concern for the patient's safety and allows for further evaluation and intervention if necessary. Option A is incorrect because asking about owning a lethal weapon does not directly address the patient's current mental state and immediate risk of harm. Option B is incorrect as it focuses on external factors rather than the patient's internal feelings of hopelessness and suicidal thoughts. Option D is incorrect as it minimizes the seriousness of the patient's symptoms and may lead to overlooking the urgency of the situation.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of hypertension and heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of worsening heart failure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Swelling in the legs and shortness of breath. In heart failure, fluid can build up in the body causing swelling, particularly in the legs. Shortness of breath is a common symptom due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Increased urine output and weight loss (A) are not indicative of worsening heart failure as they suggest fluid loss. Decreased blood pressure and dizziness (C) can be seen in other conditions like dehydration. Fatigue and constipation (D) are not specific signs of heart failure worsening.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hypercapnia. In COPD, impaired lung function leads to inadequate oxygen exchange, causing increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood (hypercapnia). This can result in respiratory acidosis and further exacerbate respiratory distress. Monitoring for hypercapnia is crucial in COPD management to prevent respiratory failure. Incorrect choices: A: Pulmonary embolism - While patients with COPD are at increased risk for blood clots, pulmonary embolism is not a direct complication of COPD. B: Pneumothorax - Although individuals with COPD may develop pneumothorax due to weakened lung tissue, it is not a common complication. D: Asthma attack - Asthma and COPD are distinct conditions with different pathophysiology. Asthma attacks are not a typical complication of COPD.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is the best indicator of a patient's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum albumin levels. Serum albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of a patient's nutritional status. Low levels of serum albumin indicate malnutrition or protein deficiency. Monitoring serum albumin levels provides an objective measure of the patient's overall nutritional status. Choice A (Patient's weight) can be influenced by factors other than nutrition, such as fluid retention or muscle mass. Choice C (Patient's food preferences) does not provide direct information on the patient's actual nutritional intake. Choice D (Number of meals consumed per day) does not account for the quality or quantity of nutrients consumed in those meals.
Question 8 of 9
When providing culturally competent care, nurses must incorporate cultural assessment into their health assessment. Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating a cultural beliefs assessment with a First Nations elder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?" This question allows the nurse to understand the elder's values and beliefs, guiding care. A: Assumes a specific faith. B: Stereotypes the elder. C: Focuses on frequency of medical visits, not beliefs.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is conducting an interview with a woman who has recently learned that she is pregnant and has come to the clinic to begin prenatal care. The woman states that she and her husband are excited about the pregnancy but have a few questions. She looks nervously at her hands during the interview and sighs audibly. Which of the following statements does the nurse know is most accurate, considering the concept of communication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the woman's nonverbal cues (looking nervously at her hands, sighing audibly) indicate potential anxiety or stress. The nurse should acknowledge these cues and explore her feelings further to provide appropriate support. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the woman's nonverbal cues. Option C is incorrect as it assumes the woman is not genuinely excited about the pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as it overlooks the woman's nonverbal cues and does not address her potential emotional needs.