ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with heart failure has tachypnea, severe dyspnea, and a SpO2 of 84%. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange related to increased preload and mechanical failure. An appropriate nursing intervention for this diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A high fowler's position increases the thoracic capacity, improving ventilation, and sitting with the legs horizontal will decrease venous return.
Question 2 of 9
Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart, detecting changes in oxygen levels in the blood. It sends signals via the glossopharyngeal nerve to regulate heart rate and blood pressure. The aortic body primarily monitors blood pressure, not chemoreception. The vagus nerve plays a role in regulating heart rate but is not a chemoreceptor. The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart, responsible for initiating the electrical signals for heart contraction, not chemoreception. Therefore, the carotid body is the correct choice for the major chemoreceptor of the heart.
Question 3 of 9
What is the term for inflammation of the bronchial tubes, often leading to a persistent cough and mucus production?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bronchitis. Bronchitis refers to inflammation of the bronchial tubes, causing symptoms such as persistent cough and mucus production. This condition is often caused by viral or bacterial infections, irritants, or smoking. Asthma (B) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and tightening, leading to difficulty breathing. Pneumonia (C) is an infection in the lungs, typically caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Cystic fibrosis (D) is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and other organs, leading to thick mucus production and recurrent infections. Therefore, the term that specifically describes inflammation of the bronchial tubes is bronchitis, making it the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in patients with low potassium levels. With a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L, the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity. Holding the digoxin and notifying the healthcare provider is the priority action to prevent potential harm to the client. B: Increasing the dose of digoxin would exacerbate the risk of digoxin toxicity in a client with low potassium levels. C: Continuing the current dose of digoxin without addressing the low potassium level could lead to digoxin toxicity. D: Administering potassium supplements alone may not be sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity. Holding the digoxin is the priority action.
Question 5 of 9
The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body. Hypokalemia can result in muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite condition of high potassium levels and is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) is a low sodium level, which may be a potential side effect of furosemide but is not the primary electrolyte imbalance to be concerned about. Hypernatremia (choice D) is high sodium levels and is not directly related to furosemide use.
Question 6 of 9
The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. The priority action is to stop the medication and inform the healthcare provider because a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Continuing the medication or administering a potassium supplement would exacerbate the issue. Increasing the dose of spironolactone would be unsafe and could lead to severe complications. Therefore, holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is crucial in managing the client's elevated potassium level.
Question 7 of 9
As the cardiac-vascular nurse prepares to administer an experimental cardiac drug to a patient who is participating in a research study, the patient states that they no longer want the medication. The nurse advises the patient that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients have the right to refuse treatment or withdraw from a study at any time.
Question 8 of 9
During the assessment, the nurse identifies crackles in the lungs and an S3 heart sound. Which complication of MI should the nurse suspect and further investigate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Crackles and S3 indicate heart failure.
Question 9 of 9
What is the term for a condition where the lung collapses due to air leaking into the space between the lung and the chest wall?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pneumothorax. Pneumothorax is the term used to describe a condition where the lung collapses due to air leaking into the pleural space. This causes pressure on the lung, leading to its collapse. Pleural effusion (B) is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, not air. Atelectasis (C) is the collapse of a portion or the entire lung due to various reasons but not air leakage. Pulmonary fibrosis (D) is a condition where lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, not related to air leakage causing lung collapse.