A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes infections, including genital herpes. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby suppressing symptoms and shortening the course of the infection. Clotrimazole (A) is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not effective against viral infections like herpes. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not effective against viruses. Podophyllin (C) is a topical treatment for genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), not effective for herpes. Therefore, the correct choice is Acyclovir (D) for treating genital herpes exacerbation.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection- related death in oncology patients?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the integrity of the patients oral mucosa regularly. Myelosuppression leads to decreased white blood cells, increasing infection risk. The oral mucosa can be a common site for infections. Regular assessment helps in early detection and intervention. A: Encouraging small meals does not directly address infection risk in myelosuppressed patients. B: Providing skin care is important for overall patient care but does not directly address the leading cause of infection-related death. C: Assisting with hygiene is important but does not specifically target the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients.

Question 3 of 9

A 6-month-old infant is brought to the ED by his parents for inconsolable crying and pulling at his right ear. When assessing this infant, the advanced practice nurse is aware that the tympanic membrane should be what color in a healthy ear?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink. In a healthy ear, the tympanic membrane should appear pink due to the rich blood supply. This color indicates good vascularization and normal functioning of the ear. Yellowish-white (choice A), gray (choice C), and bluish-white (choice D) are incorrect because they do not reflect the normal color of a healthy tympanic membrane. Yellowish-white may indicate fluid behind the eardrum, gray may suggest infection or inflammation, and bluish-white could indicate poor blood flow or trauma. Therefore, the pink color of the tympanic membrane is the most appropriate and indicative of a healthy ear in this case.

Question 4 of 9

A patient develops a foodborne disease fromEscherichiacoli. When taking a health history, which food item will the nursemostlikely find the patient ingested?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Undercooked ground beef. Escherichia coli is commonly found in undercooked ground beef, especially if it is contaminated during processing. Ground beef must be cooked to a safe internal temperature to kill any harmful bacteria. Improperly home-canned food (choice A) can also cause foodborne illnesses, but E. coli is more commonly associated with undercooked ground beef. Soft cheese (choice C) is often linked to Listeria contamination, not E. coli. Custard (choice D) is a less likely source of E. coli compared to undercooked ground beef.

Question 5 of 9

A 66-year-old patient is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the patients liver and bones. For the past several hours, the patient has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate to help to relive the dyspnea the patient is experiencing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. Dyspnea in a patient with lung cancer can be caused by hypoxia due to compromised lung function. High-flow oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea. Administering a bolus of normal saline (A) would not directly address the underlying cause of dyspnea. Administering high doses of opioids (C) may lead to respiratory depression and should be used cautiously in patients experiencing dyspnea. Administering bronchodilators and corticosteroids (D) may be appropriate for certain types of dyspnea, but in this case, addressing hypoxia with high-flow oxygen therapy is the most appropriate initial nursing action.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is preparing a bowel training programfor a patient. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording times when the patient is incontinent is crucial in identifying patterns and establishing a structured bowel training program. This data helps in determining the optimal timing for toileting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not specific to bowel training and may not address the patient's individual needs. Choice C is not a recommended posture for effective bowel elimination. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to bowel training.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse has provided care to a patient. Whichentry should the nurse document in the patient’s record?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides specific, objective information about the patient's left knee incision, including its size and absence of concerning signs. This entry is relevant, concise, and focuses on a specific aspect of the patient's condition, aiding in continuity of care and treatment planning. Choice A is vague and lacks detail, making it insufficient for accurate patient care documentation. Choice B focuses on the patient's subjective feelings and does not provide objective assessment data. Choice D is judgmental and includes unnecessary information about the patient's behavior and family presence, which is not directly related to the patient's condition.

Question 8 of 9

A patient is receiving opioids for pain. Which bowel assessment is a priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Constipation. When a patient is receiving opioids, constipation is a common side effect due to decreased gut motility. It is a priority assessment because untreated constipation can lead to serious complications such as bowel obstruction. Monitoring for constipation allows for early intervention with stool softeners or laxatives to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Clostridium difficile - While important to consider in patients on antibiotics, it is not directly related to opioid use. C: Hemorrhoids - Although opioids can contribute to constipation which may exacerbate hemorrhoids, it is not the priority assessment. D: Diarrhea - Opioids typically cause constipation, so diarrhea is less likely to be a priority concern in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blowing up balloons. Blowing up balloons involves the activation of the facial muscles, which helps prevent muscle atrophy in patients with Bell's palsy. This exercise promotes muscle strength and prevents weakness. Deliberately frowning (B), smiling repeatedly (C), and whistling (D) do not specifically target the facial muscles involved in Bell's palsy and may not be as effective in preventing muscle atrophy.

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