ATI RN
microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with foul-smelling diarrhea had a stool sample showing large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balantidiasis. The large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus described in the stool sample is consistent with Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. Balantidium coli is the only ciliated protozoan parasite that infects humans and presents with these specific characteristics. Giardiasis (B) is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is flagellated, not ciliated. Amoebiasis (C) is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which has an amoeboid shape, not ciliated. Trichomoniasis (D) is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which is a flagellated protozoan and does not have a kidney-shaped macronucleus. Hence, the correct diagnosis in this case is Balantidiasis.
Question 2 of 5
The type of infection in which several infectious agents establish themselves at the same site is referred to as a:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: mixed infection. In a mixed infection, multiple infectious agents establish themselves at the same site, leading to a complex and diverse infection. This type of infection can involve different types of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. It can be challenging to diagnose and treat due to the presence of multiple pathogens. A: Chronic infection refers to an infection that persists over a long period but is typically caused by a single pathogen. B: Necrotizing infection is characterized by rapid tissue destruction but does not necessarily involve multiple infectious agents. C: Fatal infection does not specify the presence of multiple infectious agents, it simply implies that the infection leads to death. In summary, the correct answer, mixed infection, is the only choice that specifically describes the scenario of multiple infectious agents establishing themselves at the same site.
Question 3 of 5
All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: spleen. The spleen is not a component of the gastrointestinal tract; it is part of the lymphatic system. The pharynx, esophagus, and stomach are all part of the gastrointestinal tract responsible for digestion and absorption of food. The spleen's main functions include filtering blood, storing blood cells, and supporting the immune system, making it unrelated to the digestive process.
Question 4 of 5
When drug receptors are maximally activated it is referred to as the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: peak effect. When drug receptors are maximally activated, it means the drug has reached its highest effectiveness, resulting in the peak effect. This occurs when the drug concentration is at its highest level in the body, leading to the maximum response. Threshold level (A) refers to the minimum amount of drug needed to produce a response. Cessation effect (C) is when the drug's effect wears off. Latency time (D) is the time it takes for the drug to start producing an effect. So, the peak effect best describes the scenario where drug receptors are maximally activated.
Question 5 of 5
Organisms that can grow on substances with very low moisture content are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that can survive and grow in low moisture conditions. It does not require a host cell and can thrive in moist environments, making it able to grow on substances with very low moisture content. Giardia lamblia (A), Balantidium coli (C), and Entamoeba histolytica (D) are all parasites that require a host to survive and reproduce, making them unable to grow on substances with very low moisture content. Trichomonas vaginalis is the only organism among the choices that fits the criteria of being able to grow on low moisture substances.
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