A patient with foul-smelling diarrhea had a stool sample showing large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus. What is the diagnosis?

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microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with foul-smelling diarrhea had a stool sample showing large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus. What is the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balantidiasis. The large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus described in the stool sample is consistent with Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. Balantidium coli is the only ciliated protozoan parasite that infects humans and presents with these specific characteristics. Giardiasis (B) is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is flagellated, not ciliated. Amoebiasis (C) is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which has an amoeboid shape, not ciliated. Trichomoniasis (D) is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which is a flagellated protozoan and does not have a kidney-shaped macronucleus. Hence, the correct diagnosis in this case is Balantidiasis.

Question 2 of 9

A bioterrorist has mailed an envelope with a powder that is suspected to contain anthrax causative agent. This envelope can remain dangerous for a long time, because anthrax causative agent:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Anthrax causative agent is Bacillus anthracis, which forms spores. Step 2: Spores are highly resistant structures that can survive for a long time. Step 3: These spores can germinate into active bacteria when conditions are favorable. Step 4: The presence of spores in the powder makes it dangerous even long after being mailed. Summary: A: Incorrect - Anthrax does not form a protein capsule. B: Incorrect - Anthrax does not form a polysaccharide capsule. C: Correct - Anthrax forms spores that are highly resistant. D: Incorrect - Anthrax does not form flagella.

Question 3 of 9

Which one is true about the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encompasses the true statements regarding the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections. A: Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be significant in treated patients due to the development of antibiotic resistance. B: Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be significant regardless of quantity due to their pathogenic nature. C: Leukocyturia indicates inflammation, and even a lower number of leukocytes can be clinically significant. Therefore, option D covers all these aspects making it the correct choice.

Question 4 of 9

Peritrichous bacteria:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritrichous bacteria have flagella distributed all over their surface, allowing them to move in various directions. Choice A is incorrect because bacteria with a single flagellum at one pole are called monotrichous. Choice C is incorrect as bacteria with a single flagellum at each pole are known as amphitrichous. Choice D is incorrect because peritrichous bacteria have multiple flagella all over their surface, not limited to one or both poles.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with a sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent because it is a Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule, which matches the description provided. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis and can present with sore throat. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci in clusters, not pairs, and is not typically associated with sore throat. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and more commonly causes meningitis or septicemia, not sore throat. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod bacterium, not a Gram-positive cocci, and is not a common cause of sore throat.

Question 6 of 9

Fimbriae ARE NOT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Fimbriae are hair-like structures on bacteria, not rope-like. 2. Fimbriae are smaller in diameter compared to flagella. 3. Fimbriae are used for adherence or conjugation, not flagella. Therefore, choice B is correct as it incorrectly describes fimbriae, while choices A, C, and D correctly characterize fimbriae.

Question 7 of 9

Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aspergillosis and candidiasis. Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is commonly used in diagnosing these fungal infections. Galactomannan is a component of the cell wall of Aspergillus species, while free mannan is associated with Candida species. This detection method helps in identifying these specific fungal infections accurately. B: Syphilis is caused by a bacterium, Treponema pallidum, and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. C: Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by the Leptospira species and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. D: HIV infection is a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection.

Question 8 of 9

Listeria monocytogenes is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Listeria monocytogenes is a Gram-positive bacterium known for causing foodborne illnesses. 2. Gram-negative bacteria have a different cell wall structure than Gram-positive bacteria, making choice A correct. 3. Choice B is incorrect as Listeria monocytogenes is not encapsulated or sporulating. 4. Choice C is incorrect as Listeria monocytogenes does have a cell wall. 5. Choice D is incorrect as Listeria monocytogenes is indeed a Gram-positive coccobacilli.

Question 9 of 9

From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most advisable to be administered in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.

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