A patient with fever and sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains: characteristic of Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative: Streptococcus species are catalase-negative. 3. Beta-hemolytic: S. pyogenes is beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Therefore, S. pyogenes fits all these criteria. B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but alpha-hemolytic, not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative, but not typically beta-hemolytic or in chains. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not in chains.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: bacteria. Bacteria are the most common cause of laboratory-acquired infections due to their ability to survive and multiply in various environments. They can easily contaminate lab equipment and surfaces, leading to infections if proper precautions are not taken. Viruses (choice B) are less common in laboratory-acquired infections as they require specific conditions to survive outside a host. Protozoans (choice C) are larger and less likely to be transmitted in a laboratory setting. Prions (choice D) are misfolded proteins and are not considered living organisms, making them an unlikely source of laboratory infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: young adults. Young adults are at a higher risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to factors such as engaging in risky sexual behaviors, lack of awareness, and inconsistent condom use. They are more likely to have multiple sexual partners and are less likely to seek regular STI screenings. Adolescents, while also at risk, may not make up almost half of all STI cases in the U.S. The elderly, on the other hand, are generally at a lower risk due to lower levels of sexual activity compared to young adults.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the mentioned bacteria (Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) are gram-negative bacteria that produce endotoxins in their cell walls. Endotoxins are released when the bacteria are destroyed, leading to the activation of the immune system and potentially causing septic shock. Escherichia coli and Salmonella enterica are common causes of gastrointestinal infections, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for causing infections in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, all three bacteria can produce endotoxins that contribute to septic shock. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce endotoxins that lead to septic shock.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria listed produce exotoxins that cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin causing botulism. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to cholera. Escherichia coli can produce various exotoxins causing different types of severe gastrointestinal illnesses like E. coli O157:H7 causing bloody diarrhea. Therefore, all choices A, B, and C are correct in this case as they all produce exotoxins causing severe gastrointestinal illness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell envelope structure consisting of a cytoplasmic membrane, a peptidoglycan layer, and an outer membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the innermost layer that separates the cytoplasm from the external environment. The peptidoglycan layer provides structural support to the cell. The outer membrane acts as an additional protective barrier and contains lipopolysaccharides. Choice B is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane in addition to the cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have more than just a peptidoglycan layer in their cell envelope. Choice D is incorrect as the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria does have specific components.