ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with fever and diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.
Question 2 of 9
Infections of the reproductive tract resulting from the introduction of microorganisms through a medical procedure are called:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: iatrogenic infections. Iatrogenic infections refer to infections caused by medical or surgical treatment, including procedures that introduce microorganisms into the body. In this case, infections of the reproductive tract caused by medical procedures fall under this category. A: Chronic infections do not specifically refer to infections caused by medical procedures. B: Endogenous infections arise from organisms already present in or on the body, not introduced through medical procedures. C: Systemic infections affect the entire body, not specific to infections caused by medical procedures. Therefore, the term "iatrogenic infections" is the most appropriate choice in this context.
Question 3 of 9
The development of polioviruses on cell cultures is characterized by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytopathic effect. This is because polioviruses cause visible changes in infected cells, leading to cell damage and death, known as cytopathic effect. This is a key characteristic of viral infection. Choice B (Cytotoxic effect) is incorrect as it refers to the toxicity of a substance to cells, not the specific effect of polioviruses. Choice C (Cytolytic effect) is incorrect as it specifically refers to cell lysis, which is not the primary mechanism of poliovirus infection. Choice D (They Don't Change The Cell Cultures) is incorrect because polioviruses do indeed cause changes in cell cultures due to their cytopathic effect.
Question 4 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for botulinum toxin. Extract of the tested material and ABE botulinum antitoxin serum was introduced into the test group of mice; a control group of mice received the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following organisms produces toxins that target cholesterol?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Escherichia coli is known to produce a toxin called colibactin that targets cholesterol. Step 2: Colibactin disrupts cholesterol metabolism in host cells. Step 3: This disruption can lead to various health issues. Step 4: Streptococcus pyogenes produces different toxins, not specifically targeting cholesterol. Step 5: Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces diphtheria toxin, not targeting cholesterol. Step 6: Aeromonas hydrophila produces various toxins, but not known for targeting cholesterol. Summary: Escherichia coli produces toxins that specifically target cholesterol, making it the correct choice over the other options.
Question 6 of 9
Which organism is responsible for cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, Escherichia coli can cause various infections but not cholera, and Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is B.
Question 7 of 9
A 23-year old medical student arrives in the student health clinic complaining of difficult in swallowing, sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be running a fever and has white patches on her tonsils. A throat swab is positive for streptococcus pyogenes (group A). A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical history is unremarkable except an anaphylactic reaction to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a safe alternative for treating?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to beta-lactam antibiotics like cefaclor. Clindamycin is effective against streptococcus pyogenes and is a suitable alternative in this case. Amoxicillin (choice A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic similar to cefaclor and may cause a cross-reactive allergic reaction. Meropenem (choice B) is a carbapenem antibiotic and not typically used for acute pharyngitis. Cephalexin (choice C) is a cephalosporin antibiotic and may also cause cross-reactivity in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to cefaclor.
Question 8 of 9
The papillary layer of the skin is part of the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: dermis. The papillary layer is located in the dermis, specifically at the junction with the epidermis. It contains capillaries, lymphatics, and sensory receptors, contributing to the skin's strength and elasticity. The epidermis (choice A) is the outermost layer of the skin, while the hypodermis (choice C) and subcutaneous layer (choice D) are deeper layers beneath the dermis, primarily composed of fat cells and connective tissue. Therefore, the papillary layer is part of the dermis, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following infections are typical for the upper respiratory tract?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic atrophic rhinitis. This infection is typical for the upper respiratory tract as it affects the nasal mucosa and sinuses. It is characterized by inflammation and atrophy of the nasal mucosa. Psittacosis (A) is a zoonotic infection transmitted from birds, affecting the lungs. Mycoplasma bronchitis (B) is a lower respiratory tract infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Legionnaires disease (D) is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to the upper respiratory tract.