A patient with end-stage liver failure tells the nurse, “If I can just live to see my first grandchild who is expected in 5 months, then I can die happy.” The nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating which of the following stages of grieving?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient with end-stage liver failure tells the nurse, “If I can just live to see my first grandchild who is expected in 5 months, then I can die happy.” The nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating which of the following stages of grieving?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient expressing a desire to live long enough to see their first grandchild demonstrates Kübler-Ross's stage of bargaining. This stage involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. The patient's statement reflects a plea to experience a specific event before accepting their fate. Option A, Prolonged grief disorder, is incorrect as this term refers to a persistent and intense form of grief lasting longer than expected. The patient's statement does not suggest prolonged grief, but rather a specific goal to achieve before death. Option C, Kübler-Ross’s stage of depression, is incorrect because the patient is not displaying feelings of sadness or hopelessness, which are characteristic of the depression stage. Instead, they are expressing a desire to reach a specific milestone. Option D, The new normal stage of the Grief Wheel, is incorrect as this stage refers to the period after acceptance of loss when the individual adjusts to a new reality. The patient's statement does not align with adapting to a new normal but rather with bargaining for more time. Understanding the stages of grief is crucial in nursing, especially in end-of-life care. Recognizing these stages can help nurses provide appropriate support and interventions to patients and their families as they navigate the complex emotions associated with loss and impending death.

Question 2 of 5

Joan asks you why she is being administered so many arterial blood gas tests. You respond by saying

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D) This test determines how well your tissues are oxygenated. Arterial blood gas (ABG) tests are crucial in assessing a patient's oxygenation status. They provide information on the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, as well as the blood's acidity (pH) and bicarbonate levels. In Joan's case, these tests are likely being done to monitor her oxygen levels, especially if she has a condition affecting her respiratory system or if she is on oxygen therapy. Option A) This test determines if your liver and kidneys are functioning properly is incorrect because ABG tests do not assess liver and kidney function. Tests like liver function tests and renal function tests are specifically designed for that purpose. Option B) This test determines if you have sufficient WBC to fight infection is incorrect because ABG tests do not measure white blood cell levels. A complete blood count (CBC) is used to evaluate white blood cell count. Option C) This test determines if you are hyperglycemic, which is a side effect of your medication is incorrect because ABG tests do not measure blood glucose levels. Blood glucose tests like fasting blood sugar or HbA1c are used to monitor glucose levels in the blood. In an educational context, understanding the purpose of different diagnostic tests is essential for providing quality patient care. Educating patients like Joan about the reasons behind specific tests can help them feel more involved in their care and improve their overall health literacy.

Question 3 of 5

Bob reports chest pains when performing strenuous work. The pain goes away when he sits. What is he likely to be experiencing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, Bob experiencing chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest indicates he is likely experiencing stable angina (Option B). Stable angina is chest pain or discomfort that typically occurs with physical activity or stress due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. It is a predictable and manageable condition that is often triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Option A, indigestion, is incorrect because the pain in stable angina is typically exertional and related to the heart, not the digestive system. Option C, unstable angina, is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion and is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. Option D, Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by coronary artery spasm rather than blockages from plaque buildup, and typically occurs at rest rather than with exertion. Educationally, understanding the differences between types of angina is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately assess and manage patients with chest pain. Recognizing the characteristics of stable angina helps in differentiating it from other types of angina and conditions with similar symptoms, guiding appropriate interventions and improving patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

Patients returning from the operating room (OR) should be monitored for atelectasis. Why is this important?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of postoperative care, monitoring for atelectasis in patients returning from the operating room is crucial because of the increased risk associated with immobility, anesthesia, and inadequate deep breathing. Option A is correct because immobility can lead to decreased lung expansion and secretion clearance, anesthesia can depress respiratory drive and impair cough reflex, and lack of deep breathing can result in collapsed alveoli, all contributing to the development of atelectasis. Option B is incorrect because while postoperative patients are indeed at risk for various complications, not all of them are at risk for infection specifically. Option C is incorrect because receiving too much oxygen during surgery is not a common cause of atelectasis; in fact, oxygen therapy is often used to prevent atelectasis. Option D is also incorrect because postoperative patients typically receive adequate oxygenation during surgery, and inadequate oxygen delivery is not a primary cause of atelectasis in this context. Educationally, understanding the pathophysiology of atelectasis postoperatively is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to implement appropriate preventive measures such as early mobilization, incentive spirometry, and respiratory exercises to reduce the risk of lung collapse and promote optimal postoperative recovery. Monitoring for atelectasis allows for early detection and prompt intervention, ultimately improving patient outcomes and reducing the incidence of respiratory complications following surgery.

Question 5 of 5

Felicia's family is concerned because Felicia states that she is hearing voices. This is a sign of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Schizophrenia. Hearing voices is a classic symptom of schizophrenia, a severe mental disorder characterized by disturbances in thoughts, perceptions, and behaviors. Individuals with schizophrenia may experience hallucinations, such as hearing voices, which are not based in reality. Option A) Bipolar disorder is characterized by mood swings between mania and depression, but hearing voices is not a typical symptom of bipolar disorder. Option C) Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder characterized by sudden and repeated attacks of fear, but it does not typically involve hearing voices. Option D) Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating and purging behaviors, and it is not associated with hearing voices. Educationally, understanding the symptoms and signs of various mental health disorders is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately assess and provide appropriate care for their patients. Recognizing the hallmark symptoms of schizophrenia, such as auditory hallucinations, is essential for early detection and intervention to improve outcomes for individuals experiencing mental health challenges.

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