ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as
Question 2 of 5
Which interventions may be included during “terminal we aning”? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because during terminal weaning, the artificial ventilation is discontinued while maintaining the artificial airway to ensure comfort and support. This allows the patient to breathe on their own with support as needed. Explanation: 1. Option A: Complete extubation following ventilator withdrawal may not be suitable during terminal weaning as it involves removing the breathing tube entirely. 2. Option C: Discontinuation of anxiolytic and pain medications may not always be appropriate during terminal weaning as it depends on the patient's comfort needs. 3. Option D: Titration of ventilator support based on blood gas determinations is not typically done during terminal weaning as the focus is on gradual withdrawal of ventilation support while maintaining comfort.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is managing a donor patient six hours prior to th e scheduled harvesting of the patient’s organs. Which assessment finding requires imme diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The patient's pH of 7.30 indicates acidosis, PaCO2 of 38 mm Hg is low, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L is also low, suggesting metabolic acidosis. This finding requires immediate action as untreated acidosis can lead to serious complications. Choice A (morning serum blood glucose of 128 mg/dL) is within normal range and does not require immediate action. Choice C (pulmonary artery temperature of 97.8°F) is a normal temperature and does not require immediate action. Choice D (central venous pressure of 8 mm Hg) is within normal range and does not require immediate action.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.