Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One chronic and one acute illness. This is because Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition, while influenza is an acute illness. The nurse should develop goals addressing the management and control of the chronic condition (diabetes) as well as the treatment and recovery from the acute illness (influenza). This approach ensures comprehensive care that considers both the long-term management of the chronic illness and the immediate needs related to the acute illness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the combination of chronic and acute illnesses presented in the scenario. Choice B focuses solely on two acute illnesses, which overlooks the ongoing management required for the chronic condition. Choice C combines an acute and an infectious illness, but fails to account for the chronic illness component. Choice D involves two chronic illnesses, neglecting the immediate care needed for the acute illness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient’s lungs. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release from damaged muscle cells. IV fluids and mannitol are given to prevent kidney damage by promoting myoglobin excretion. Assessing the patient’s lungs is crucial to monitor for potential complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which can occur as a result of rhabdomyolysis. This assessment helps to ensure early detection and prompt intervention if respiratory issues arise. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Assess the patient’s hearing - This is not directly related to rhabdomyolysis or its treatment. C: Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered - Decreasing IV fluids can exacerbate kidney injury in rhabdomyolysis. D: Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents - Mannitol is not routinely given before radiological contrast agents in the context of rhabdomyolysis management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Answer D being correct: 1. PA catheter measures PA pressures. 2. PAWP reflects left atrial pressure. 3. Correct placement shows typical PAWP tracing. 4. PA pressure waveform (A) is not specific to PAWP. 5. Systemic arterial pressure tracing (B) is unrelated. 6. Systemic vascular resistance tracing (C) is not monitored by PA catheter.