ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.
Question 3 of 9
The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nursemostlikely administer the feeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jejunostomy tube. This tube is chosen because the patient has a history of aspiration pneumonia, which puts them at risk for aspiration if feeds are administered into the stomach. By administering feeds through a jejunostomy tube, the risk of aspiration pneumonia is minimized as the feed bypasses the stomach. Nasogastric tube (A) and Nasointestinal tube (C) would still deliver feeds to the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration. PEG tube (D) is also not ideal as it delivers feeds directly to the stomach, which is not recommended for patients at risk for aspiration.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is watching a nursing assistive personnel(NAP) perform a postvoid bladder scan on a female with a previous hysterectomy. Which action will require the nurse to follow up?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because setting the scanner to female is incorrect for a patient who has had a hysterectomy as they do not have a uterus. This could lead to inaccurate results. Palpating the symphysis pubis (A) ensures proper positioning, wiping the scanner head with alcohol (B) maintains infection control, and applying gel (C) facilitates sound wave transmission.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. What nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Addressing possible barriers to adherence. This is crucial because adherence to the antiretroviral drug regimen is key for successful therapy in HIV patients. By identifying and addressing barriers such as medication side effects, cost, or forgetfulness, nurses can help patients stay on track with their treatment. Other choices are incorrect: A: Promoting complementary therapies is not the priority in initiating antiretroviral therapy. Adherence to the prescribed regimen is more critical. C: Educating about the pathophysiology of HIV is important, but it may not directly impact the success of the therapy as much as addressing adherence barriers. D: While follow-up blood work is necessary, it is not as immediate and impactful as addressing adherence barriers at the beginning of therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer calcium gluconate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a low respiratory rate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction. Administering calcium gluconate helps reverse the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Increasing IV fluids (Choice A) is not directly related to treating respiratory depression. Vigorously stimulating the patient (Choice C) can exacerbate respiratory depression. Instructing the patient to take deep breaths (Choice D) may not be effective in addressing the underlying cause of respiratory depression due to magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 7 of 9
In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.
Question 8 of 9
A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Promotion of HPV immunization. This strategy is effective in preventing cervical cancer by targeting the main cause, which is Human Papillomavirus (HPV). The HPV vaccine can protect against the most common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse (B) does not directly prevent HPV transmission, as the virus can be transmitted through other means. Smoking cessation (C) is important for overall health but does not specifically prevent cervical cancer. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation (D) may have general health benefits but do not directly prevent cervical cancer. Using safer sex practices (E) can reduce the risk of HPV transmission but does not provide the same level of protection as HPV immunization.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the patient is resting. This is because the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease is most noticeable when the patient is at rest due to the characteristic "resting tremor" seen in this condition. The tremor tends to lessen or disappear with purposeful movements or activities, making it more difficult to assess during ambulation, meal preparation, or occupational therapy. By observing the patient at rest, the nurse can accurately assess the presence and severity of the tremor, which is a key diagnostic feature of Parkinson's disease. Other answer choices are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal condition for assessing the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease.