A patient with dysentery had a stool sample that was cultured on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Endo agar inhibits the growth of Gram-positive bacteria. 2. Colorless colonies on Endo agar indicate lactose non-fermenting bacteria. 3. Shigella dysenteriae is a lactose non-fermenting, Gram-negative rod, causing dysentery. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Proteus vulgaris are lactose fermenters, so they would produce pink colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Shigella dysenteriae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is classified as a class A bioterrorism agent due to its high virulence and potential for mass casualties. It can cause tularemia, a severe and potentially fatal disease. The other choices, Hepatitis B, E. coli, and Bacillus subtilis, are not considered class A bioterrorism agents. Hepatitis B is a virus causing liver inflammation, E. coli is a common bacterium found in the gut, and Bacillus subtilis is a beneficial bacterium used in various industries. Therefore, Francisella tularensis is the correct choice based on its high pathogenicity and bioterrorism potential.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Adenoviridae) is correct: 1. Adenoviruses commonly cause respiratory illnesses such as the common cold and bronchitis. 2. They are highly contagious and easily spread through respiratory secretions. 3. Adenoviruses are a common cause of viral conjunctivitis as well. 4. Other choices are incorrect because herpesviruses (choice A) typically cause different types of infections, papovaviruses (choice B) are not common respiratory pathogens, and poxviruses (choice D) are not typically associated with respiratory illnesses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus, oxidase-positive, and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause respiratory infections and is commonly found in sputum cultures of patients with such infections. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B) is also a Gram-negative diplococcus but is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis (C) is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is not a diplococcus and is not fermentative. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Answer A (Sabouraud's) is correct: 1. Sabouraud's agar is a selective medium for fungi. 2. Candida is a type of fungus causing candidosis. 3. Sabouraud's agar promotes fungal growth. 4. Candida will grow on Sabouraud's agar, confirming the diagnosis. 5. Other choices are for bacterial culture, not suitable for fungal growth. Summary: - Endo, Jensen's, and Roux are not appropriate for fungal culture. - Sabouraud's agar specifically supports fungal growth, making it the correct choice for confirming candidosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encompasses the true statements regarding the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections. A: Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be significant in treated patients due to the development of antibiotic resistance. B: Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be significant regardless of quantity due to their pathogenic nature. C: Leukocyturia indicates inflammation, and even a lower number of leukocytes can be clinically significant. Therefore, option D covers all these aspects making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani is responsible for causing tetanus by producing a neurotoxin called tetanospasmin. This neurotoxin blocks inhibitory signals in the central nervous system, leading to muscle spasms and stiffness characteristic of tetanus. Clostridium perfringens (B) causes gas gangrene, Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat, and Escherichia coli (D) can cause gastrointestinal infections but not tetanus. Therefore, based on the specific pathogen and its mechanism of action, Clostridium tetani is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis causes bubonic plague, characterized by enlarged, painful lymph nodes called buboes. The Gram-negative rods with a safety pin appearance are seen on Gram stain of Y. pestis. The other choices are incorrect because Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, not lymphadenitis with safety pin appearance. Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which typically does not present with lymphadenitis. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which is not associated with lymphadenitis or safety pin appearance.