Questions 9

ATI RN

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microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient with dysentery had a stool sample that was cultured on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Endo agar inhibits the growth of Gram-positive bacteria. 2. Colorless colonies on Endo agar indicate lactose non-fermenting bacteria. 3. Shigella dysenteriae is a lactose non-fermenting, Gram-negative rod, causing dysentery. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Proteus vulgaris are lactose fermenters, so they would produce pink colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Shigella dysenteriae.

Question 2 of 5

Microscopy of a wound smear revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks. What microorganism is most likely responsible?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. The presence of Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks indicates Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus. This bacterium forms spores at one end, giving it a drumstick appearance under the microscope. Clostridium perfringens (B) and Clostridium botulinum (D) do not have terminal spores. Bacillus anthracis (C) forms spores but typically appears as a square-ended or bamboo stick shape. Therefore, based on the microscopy findings, Clostridium tetani is the most likely microorganism responsible for the wound infection.

Question 3 of 5

Which bacteria are associated with causing the disease pneumonia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Step 2: Mycobacterium tuberculosis can lead to tuberculosis, which can manifest as pulmonary tuberculosis. Step 3: Escherichia coli is not typically associated with causing pneumonia. Step 4: Since Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are linked to pneumonia, and Escherichia coli is not, the correct answer is D - All of the above.

Question 4 of 5

A 2-year-old unvaccinated child is admitted to hospital with high grade fever, maculopapular rash and whitish spots located bilaterally on the buccal mucosa, corresponding to Filatov-Koplik's spots. What kind of test will support your diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen

Question 5 of 5

Among the listed bacteria, a class A bioterrorism agent is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is classified as a class A bioterrorism agent due to its high virulence and potential for mass casualties. It can cause tularemia, a severe and potentially fatal disease. The other choices, Hepatitis B, E. coli, and Bacillus subtilis, are not considered class A bioterrorism agents. Hepatitis B is a virus causing liver inflammation, E. coli is a common bacterium found in the gut, and Bacillus subtilis is a beneficial bacterium used in various industries. Therefore, Francisella tularensis is the correct choice based on its high pathogenicity and bioterrorism potential.

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