A patient with diarrhea had stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with diarrhea had stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella typhi. The patient's symptoms of diarrhea and the characteristics of non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that are oxidase-positive and fermentative are consistent with Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever, which presents with symptoms like diarrhea. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (choice A) is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Escherichia coli (choice B) is both lactose-fermenting and oxidase-negative. Shigella dysenteriae (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Therefore, Salmonella typhi is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.

Question 2 of 9

A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (25°C) because dimorphic fungi typically grow as molds at lower temperatures. At 25°C, the fungus is likely in its mold phase, which is the preferred temperature range for mold growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 15°C and 20°C are too low for optimal mold growth, and 37°C is too high as it typically favors the yeast phase of dimorphic fungi. Therefore, the preferred temperature for mold growth of a dimorphic fungus is 25°C.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following infectious diseases is considered to be a reemerging disease?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is considered a reemerging disease due to the increase in drug-resistant strains, high global prevalence, and challenges in diagnosis and treatment. This is supported by global health organizations' reports on the resurgence of TB cases. A: AIDS is not considered a reemerging disease as there has been significant progress in HIV prevention and treatment. B: Ebola outbreaks are sporadic and localized, not considered reemerging on a global scale. C: West Nile virus outbreaks occur periodically, but it is not considered a reemerging disease compared to TB.

Question 4 of 9

Etiological factors for the infectious diseases are often microorganisms with various ultrastructure. Which of the following microorganism groups relates to the eukaryotes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protozoa. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms, meaning they have a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotes have complex cellular structures that include a nucleus, mitochondria, and other organelles. Therefore, protozoa are eukaryotes. Viruses (B) are not considered cells and lack cellular structures. Viroids (C) are smaller infectious agents that consist of only RNA, lacking the cellular structure of eukaryotes. Prions (D) are infectious proteins and do not possess cellular structures like eukaryotes. So, protozoa are the only choice that relates to eukaryotes due to their cellular structure.

Question 5 of 9

All of the following reactions are used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Agglutination test type Gruber. This is because the Gruber agglutination test is not typically used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis. The other options (A, B, C) are commonly used methods for serological identification of Y. pestis: A) Precipitation reaction involves the formation of a visible precipitate when Y. pestis antigen reacts with specific antibodies. B) Indirect hemagglutination test detects antibodies against Y. pestis by measuring the agglutination of red blood cells. C) Immunofluorescence test uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens of Y. pestis. In summary, the Gruber agglutination test is not a standard method for serological identification of Yersinia pestis, unlike the other options provided.

Question 6 of 9

First-year schoolchildren have received tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) at the school nurse's office. The purpose of this test was:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: To determine the children that need to receive BCG vaccination. The Mantoux test is used to identify individuals who have been exposed to Tuberculosis (TB) and need BCG vaccination for protection. Parotitis (choice A) is a viral infection unrelated to TB. Allergization rate toward rickettsia (choice B) and immune stress toward diphtheria (choice C) are not related to the Mantoux test or BCG vaccination. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it aligns with the purpose of the Mantoux test.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produce an endotoxin that causes fever and shock?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) as all three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, Neisseria meningitidis) produce endotoxins causing fever and shock. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can trigger an immune response leading to fever and shock. Escherichia coli and Salmonella enterica are common causes of food poisoning and sepsis, while Neisseria meningitidis is responsible for meningococcal meningitis and septicemia. Therefore, all three choices are correct in producing endotoxins that can cause fever and shock.

Question 8 of 9

A 42-year-old patient with gastric ulcer has a disbalance between the aggressive and defensive factors. Which of the following factors contributes to the development of gastric ulcer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a major cause of gastric ulcers by disrupting the balance between aggressive (acid, pepsin) and defensive (mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandins) factors in the stomach lining. H. pylori infection leads to inflammation, weakening the protective mucosal barrier, making the stomach more susceptible to damage. Choices B, C, and D are defensive factors that help protect the stomach lining and prevent ulcer formation, so they do not contribute to the development of gastric ulcers.

Question 9 of 9

Which bacteria are capable of forming spores to survive extreme conditions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are known to form spores. 2. Spore formation is a mechanism for survival in harsh conditions. 3. Both bacteria are capable of causing severe diseases in humans. Summary: - Choice A and B are incorrect because each bacteria listed is capable of spore formation. - Choice D is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned can form spores to survive extreme conditions.

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