ATI RN
NCLEX Questions Oxygen Therapy Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) has blood glucose levels that are consistently between 180 to 250 mg/dL. Which nursing action will the nurse plan to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Teach the patient about administration of insulin. The rationale behind this is that elevated blood glucose levels in a patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) are indicative of CF-related diabetes (CFRD), a common complication in CF patients. CFRD often requires insulin therapy to manage blood glucose levels effectively. Educating the patient on how to administer insulin is crucial for effective management of CFRD. Option A) Discussing the role of diet in blood glucose control is not the most appropriate action in this case, as CFRD typically requires insulin therapy in addition to dietary modifications. While diet plays a role in managing blood glucose levels, insulin administration is the priority in CFRD. Option B) Evaluating the patient's use of pancreatic enzymes is not directly related to managing elevated blood glucose levels in CFRD. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is essential for CF patients to aid in digestion but does not address the issue of high blood glucose levels. Option D) Giving oral hypoglycemic medications before meals is not the appropriate action for a patient with CFRD. Insulin therapy is the mainstay of treatment for CFRD due to its effectiveness in regulating blood glucose levels in these patients. Educationally, understanding the relationship between CF and CFRD, as well as the appropriate management strategies, is vital for nurses caring for patients with CF. Recognizing the signs of CFRD and knowing the appropriate interventions, such as insulin therapy, can help nurses provide optimal care and improve patient outcomes in this population.
Question 2 of 5
What is true about voice rehabilitation after a total laryngectomy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Voice rehabilitation after a total laryngectomy is crucial for individuals to regain effective communication. Option C, "Assistive devices are available," is the correct answer. This is because after a total laryngectomy, the natural ability to produce speech is lost due to the removal of the larynx. Assistive devices such as electrolarynx, esophageal speech, and tracheoesophageal puncture (TEP) speech prosthesis are available to help individuals communicate effectively. Option A, "Speech is lost permanently," is incorrect as it suggests a permanent loss of communication ability, which is not true with proper rehabilitation and the use of assistive devices. Option B, "Normal speech is restored," is incorrect because after a total laryngectomy, the individual does not regain the ability for speech in the traditional sense but can communicate effectively through other means. Option D, "Voice remains normal-sounding," is incorrect because the individual's voice will be altered after a laryngectomy due to the changes in the anatomy of the throat. Educationally, understanding the options and outcomes of voice rehabilitation after a total laryngectomy is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses, to provide appropriate support and care to patients undergoing this procedure. By knowing the available assistive devices and the expected outcomes, nurses can educate and assist patients in adapting to their new form of communication effectively.
Question 3 of 5
Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of which TB medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Rifampin. Rifampin is known to cause orange-colored body secretions as a side effect, particularly urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This discoloration is harmless and reversible, and typically not a cause for alarm or discontinuation of the medication. It is important for nurses and healthcare professionals to educate patients about this potential side effect to alleviate concerns. Option A) Isoniazid is incorrect because it does not typically cause orange-colored body secretions. Common side effects of isoniazid include peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity. Option C) Ethambutol is incorrect because it is associated with alterations in red-green color discrimination, particularly affecting vision. It is important to monitor for changes in vision while on ethambutol. Option D) Pyrazinamide is incorrect as it is not typically associated with orange-colored body secretions. Common side effects of pyrazinamide include hepatotoxicity and hyperuricemia. Educationally, understanding the side effects of medications used in the treatment of tuberculosis is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to ensure safe administration and monitoring of patients. By being knowledgeable about these side effects, healthcare professionals can educate patients effectively, monitor for adverse reactions, and intervene promptly if needed.
Question 4 of 5
Drug interactions are a concern for a patient with HIV and TB due to what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this NCLEX question about drug interactions for a patient with HIV and TB, the correct answer is option A: Antiretroviral and TB medications. This is because antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV and medications for TB can interact with each other, leading to potential complications and reduced effectiveness of treatment. Option B (Expected symptoms) is incorrect because drug interactions are not related to symptoms but rather to the way medications interact within the body. Option C (Normal progression) is incorrect as it does not address the specific concern of drug interactions in this scenario. Option D (Routine treatment) is incorrect because it does not acknowledge the potential for drug interactions that can occur when treating both HIV and TB simultaneously. Educationally, understanding drug interactions is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective treatment for patients with multiple co-existing conditions. It highlights the importance of thorough medication reconciliation, close monitoring for adverse effects, and the need to adjust treatment plans accordingly to optimize patient outcomes. Healthcare professionals must be knowledgeable about potential drug interactions to prevent harm and provide quality care to patients with complex health needs.
Question 5 of 5
What should a patient do if peak flow readings are in the yellow zone?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Readings in the yellow zone indicate a decrease in peak flow. The patient should use short-acting β2-adrenergic (SABA) medications. Readings in the green zone indicate good asthma control. The patient should exhale quickly and forcefully through the peak flow meter mouthpiece to obtain the readings.