ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased dyspnea, wheezing, and productive cough. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for bronchodilation and symptom relief in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol (salbutamol) is a short-acting beta agonist bronchodilator commonly used for quick relief of bronchoconstriction in patients with COPD. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing and improved airflow. The patient's increased dyspnea, wheezing, and productive cough are indicative of bronchoconstriction, and albuterol is the most appropriate medication to provide rapid bronchodilation and symptom relief in this situation. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine and not typically used for bronchodilation in COPD. Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that may be used in the maintenance treatment of COPD but is not the initial choice for acute symptom relief. Prednisone is a cortic
Question 2 of 5
A patient with suspected acute exacerbation of asthma presents with severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for assessing the severity of the patient's asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of acute exacerbation of asthma, including severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. In such cases, the most appropriate intervention for assessing the severity of the asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions is a clinical assessment using standardized severity scores.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated indirect bilirubin levels, reticulocytosis, and positive Coombs test. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer to the question is A) Hereditary spherocytosis. This condition is characterized by a defect in the red blood cell membrane that leads to hemolysis, resulting in anemia. The presentation of fatigue, weakness, and jaundice is indicative of hemolytic anemia, which is a common feature of hereditary spherocytosis. In hereditary spherocytosis, the elevated indirect bilirubin levels are due to the increased breakdown of red blood cells. Reticulocytosis is seen as the bone marrow tries to compensate for the decreased red blood cell lifespan. The positive Coombs test indicates the presence of antibodies attached to the surface of red blood cells, which is a common finding in autoimmune hemolytic anemias like hereditary spherocytosis. Regarding the other options: - Thalassemia and sickle cell disease are not typically associated with a positive Coombs test or reticulocytosis. - G6PD deficiency would present with hemolysis triggered by oxidative stressors, but it does not typically cause a positive Coombs test or reticulocytosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and clinical manifestations of different hemolytic anemias is crucial for nurses to make accurate assessments, provide appropriate care, and educate patients about their condition and treatment options. This knowledge helps in early recognition of complications and effective management of patients with hemolytic disorders.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by abnormal antiphospholipid antibodies, which can lead to an increased risk of blood clots such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). The two most common antiphospholipid antibodies are anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant. Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome can present with recurrent thrombotic events, such as DVT and PE, due to the pro-thrombotic effects of these antibodies. Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency are other causes of hypercoagulability but would not typically present with elevated antiphospholipid antibodies.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of fever, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with atypical lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear and positive heterophile antibody test (Monospot test). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of recurrent fever, sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, leukocytosis with atypical lymphocytes, and positive heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) is highly indicative of infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV is a member of the herpesvirus family and is a common cause of infectious mononucleosis. The atypical lymphocytes seen on peripheral blood smear are reactive T lymphocytes responding to the EBV infection. The Monospot test detects heterophile antibodies produced in response to EBV infection.