A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. Ipratropium works by:

Questions 265

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. Ipratropium works by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blocking muscarinic receptors in the airways. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation in patients with COPD. This mechanism of action reduces bronchoconstriction and improves airflow. A: Relaxing bronchial smooth muscle by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors is incorrect because ipratropium does not act on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. B: Inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine in the lungs is incorrect as ipratropium does not affect the breakdown of acetylcholine. D: Inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is incorrect because ipratropium does not target histamine release. In summary, the correct answer is C because ipratropium's mechanism of action involves blocking muscarinic receptors to achieve bronchodilation in COPD patients

Question 2 of 5

A patient with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. Fluticasone is classified as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A corticosteroid. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is crucial in managing asthma. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of asthma treatment as they help to decrease airway inflammation and prevent asthma symptoms. Choice A, a beta-agonist, is incorrect because beta-agonists work by relaxing the muscles around the airways and are usually used as rescue inhalers for quick relief of asthma symptoms. Choice C, a leukotriene modifier, is incorrect as leukotriene modifiers work by blocking the action of certain immune system chemicals that cause asthma symptoms, but they are not the classification for fluticasone. Choice D, an anticholinergic agent, is incorrect as anticholinergics work by blocking acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes airway constriction, and are typically used in conditions like COPD, not as the

Question 3 of 5

This graph illustrates the dose-response relationship for the effect of the beta agonist isoproterenol on an isolated perfused heart, both alone and in the presence of different fixed concentrations of Drug X. Based upon the data shown, Drug X is most likely a(n):

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Competitive antagonist. This can be determined by observing that the presence of Drug X shifts the dose-response curve for isoproterenol to the right without affecting the maximal response. This indicates competitive antagonism, where Drug X competes with isoproterenol for the same receptor site without affecting the efficacy of isoproterenol. Choice A (Beta agonist) is incorrect because the graph does not show any direct agonistic effect of Drug X. Choice C (Irreversible antagonist) is incorrect because the effect of Drug X is reversible, as shown by the ability of isoproterenol to still elicit a response in the presence of Drug X. Choice D (Noncompetitive antagonist) is incorrect because noncompetitive antagonists typically reduce the maximal response of the agonist, which is not seen in this graph.

Question 4 of 5

A 64-year-old man suffering from benign prostatic hyperplasia presented to his physician complaining of generalized itching. The problem began 1 week earlier, after an afternoon of prolonged sun exposure. The patient reported that the itching was distressing, especially during the night. Physical examination showed an enlarged prostate and no other evidence of ongoing disease. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loratadine. Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that is commonly used to relieve symptoms of allergies, including itching. In this case, the patient's generalized itching is likely due to an allergic reaction triggered by sun exposure. Loratadine can help alleviate the itching without causing excessive sedation, making it suitable for an elderly patient. A: Cyproheptadine is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause significant sedation and anticholinergic side effects, making it less ideal for an elderly patient. B: Diphenhydramine is also a first-generation antihistamine that can cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects, which may not be well-tolerated by the elderly patient. C: Famotidine is a histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat ulcers, not itching related to allergic reactions.

Question 5 of 5

A 43-year-old man with a long history of exertional angina was recently diagnosed with migraine. Which of the following anti-migraine drugs would be contraindicated in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sumatriptan. As a 43-year-old man with a history of exertional angina, sumatriptan is contraindicated due to its potential vasoconstrictive effects, which can exacerbate angina symptoms and increase the risk of cardiovascular events. Aspirin (A) is commonly used for cardiovascular protection. Acetaminophen (B) is a safe option for pain relief in patients with angina. Ibuprofen (D) should be used with caution but is not contraindicated as it mainly affects platelet function rather than causing significant vasoconstriction.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions