A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the emergency department setting, the initial diagnostic test typically performed for a patient suspected of having a stroke is a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. This imaging study is crucial in evaluating and diagnosing stroke because it can quickly identify whether the person is having a hemorrhagic stroke (bleeding in the brain) or an ischemic stroke (blood clot blocking a blood vessel). The results of the CT scan help guide immediate treatment decisions, such as administering clot-busting medications for ischemic strokes or preparing for surgical interventions for hemorrhagic strokes. Carotid ultrasound studies and transcranial Doppler flow studies may be performed after the initial CT scan to further assess the extent of damage and the underlying cause of the stroke. The 12-lead electrocardiogram is useful in assessing the heart's electrical activity but is not the primary test for diagnosing stroke.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction is a common surgical procedure performed to repair a torn ACL. This procedure involves replacing the damaged ACL with a graft, often using a portion of the patient's own patellar tendon, hamstring tendon, or an allograft (donor tissue). ACL reconstruction is typically indicated for patients with ACL tears that result in knee instability and functional limitations, especially in active individuals who participate in sports or activities requiring pivoting and cutting movements. Arthroscopic surgery is commonly used to perform ACL reconstruction, allowing for smaller incisions and faster recovery compared to traditional open surgeries. Post-operative rehabilitation and physical therapy are crucial components of the recovery process following ACL reconstruction surgery to optimize outcomes and return to pre-injury activity levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In delegation, facilitating the professional growth and development of a staff is necessary because it allows team members to gain new skills and experience, leading to overall improved productivity and job satisfaction. This empowers staff and helps them feel more engaged in their work, ultimately benefiting the entire unit. Effective delegation should aim to support individuals in their roles, encourage learning, and build competence, rather than modifying standards of care or only delegating tasks without considering individual growth. Starting delegation from top management to staff-nurse level may not always be practical or efficient, as delegation should be based on competencies and responsibilities. Accountability is indeed a crucial aspect of delegation, as individuals should be held responsible for the tasks they are delegated. However, without providing opportunities for professional growth and development, delegation may not be as effective in achieving organizational goals.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss of more than 500 ml within the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml following a cesarean delivery. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock and can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Therefore, a blood loss of more than 500 ml/24 hours would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage and prompt further assessment and intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a woman in active labor with placenta previa, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, which can lead to severe bleeding during labor and delivery. The risk of hemorrhage is significant, making a cesarean section the safest option for both the mother and the baby in this situation. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent complications and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Administering intravenous oxytocin to augment labor or inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output would not address the immediate risk of hemorrhage associated with placenta previa. Implementing bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring may be part of the overall care plan but not the priority intervention in this urgent situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining informed consent is primarily the responsibility of the physician. Informed consent is a crucial ethical and legal concept in healthcare that requires the healthcare provider, usually the physician, to ensure that the patient understands the proposed treatment, including the risks, benefits, alternatives, and potential outcomes, before agreeing to proceed with the treatment. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, and midwives, may also play a role in the informed consent process by providing information and clarifying details, it is ultimately the physician who must obtain the patient's informed consent before any treatment or procedure is performed.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leaving the side rails down is one of the most common occurrences that can lead to a patient fall. Side rails are important safety measures designed to prevent patients from falling out of bed. When the side rails are left down, the patient is at a higher risk of accidentally rolling out of bed and falling. It is crucial for healthcare providers to always ensure that the side rails are up and secure to help prevent patient falls.