A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.

Question 2 of 9

The patient with diagnosis of schizophrenia who has been taking Clozapine will inform the patients family that the positive effect of this drug is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication primarily used in the treatment of schizophrenia. One of the positive effects of Clozapine is the reduction of psychotic symptoms experienced by the patient, such as hallucinations (not hearing loss). Clozapine is effective in managing both positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking) and negative symptoms (apathy, social withdrawal, lack of motivation) of schizophrenia. It is known for its efficacy in reducing hallucinations and other psychotic symptoms, helping the patient to lead a more stable and functional life.

Question 3 of 9

When Nurse Ace suubitted a report to the physician that she committed an error in medication. This is an example of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nurse Ace submitting a report to the physician about committing an error in medication demonstrates accountability. Accountability in healthcare refers to the responsibility of individuals to answer for their actions, decisions, and behaviors in the professional setting. By taking ownership of the mistake and informing the physician, Nurse Ace is showing accountability for her actions, ensuring that patient safety remains a priority. Compliance with reporting errors is essential for quality improvement and patient safety in healthcare settings.

Question 4 of 9

The elderly should be affforded health protection by

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Regular health check-ups play a crucial role in the prevention, early detection, and management of health issues, especially for the elderly. By ensuring that the elderly receive regular health check-ups, healthcare providers can monitor their health status, detect any potential health problems early on, and provide appropriate medical interventions. This proactive approach can help protect the elderly from developing serious health issues or complications. Additionally, regular health check-ups can also promote overall health and well-being, allowing healthcare professionals to address any existing health concerns and provide necessary treatments or recommendations to maintain the elderly's health and quality of life.

Question 5 of 9

A postpartum client exhibits signs of wound infection, including erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage from a cesarean incision. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a postpartum client exhibits signs of wound infection, such as erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage from a cesarean incision, it is essential to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Wound infections can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. The healthcare provider will assess the infection, possibly order further diagnostic tests, and determine the appropriate course of treatment, which may include antibiotics or additional wound care measures. Applying a dressing or irrigating the wound may be part of the treatment plan prescribed by the healthcare provider, but the first step is always to seek guidance from the provider.

Question 6 of 9

When determining the existence of malpractice, which factor is NOT considered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When determining the existence of malpractice, intent is not considered as a factor. Malpractice typically involves unintentional actions or negligence rather than a deliberate intent to cause harm. The key factors that are usually considered in a malpractice case include duty (a legal obligation to provide a certain standard of care), causation (the link between the provider's actions and the patient's injury), and the existence of an injury resulting from the provider's actions or omissions. Intent does not play a direct role in malpractice cases, as they are focused on the standard of care provided by the healthcare professional and the harm caused as a result.

Question 7 of 9

During a home visit, a member of the family you're visiting who has been using marijuana for three years tells theyou that he wants to be 'detoxified'. It is important for the nurse to ____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Identifying the patient's stage of change is crucial when someone expresses a desire to be "detoxified" from a substance like marijuana. The Transtheoretical Model (Stages of Change) outlines different stages individuals go through when making behavior changes. By identifying which stage the patient is in (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, or relapse), the nurse can tailor interventions and support accordingly. This approach helps ensure that interventions are effective and appropriate for the individual's readiness for change. It is important to meet the patient where they are in their journey towards detoxification and offer support and guidance accordingly.

Question 8 of 9

Simple hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A simple hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus and cervix. It does not involve the removal of the fallopian tubes or ovaries. In some cases, the fallopian tubes may be removed along with the uterus, but this would be specified as a different type of hysterectomy (such as a total hysterectomy or a radical hysterectomy). The removal of the ovaries, if necessary, would be indicated as an oophorectomy.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with suspected tuberculosis (TB) presents with cough, weight loss, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of pulmonary TB?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with suspected pulmonary TB, the most appropriate diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis is the sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture. This test involves examining sputum samples under the microscope for the presence of acid-fast bacilli, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB. Additionally, culturing the sputum allows for the bacteria to grow in a controlled environment, further confirming the diagnosis. In the given scenario, the patient's symptoms (cough, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis), along with chest X-ray findings of upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation, are highly suggestive of pulmonary TB. Therefore, performing a sputum AFB smear and culture is crucial for definitive diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment. The other options (Tuberculin skin test, Interferon

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