A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with periorbital edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms presented (periorbital edema, hypertension, proteinuria) along with the laboratory findings (elevated creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis) are classical signs of chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, the kidneys gradually lose their function over time, leading to impaired filtration of waste products and electrolyte imbalance. The presence of hypertension and proteinuria are common in CKD due to the compromised renal function. Additionally, elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis are indicative of kidney dysfunction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The entry you expect to be written in Mrs. Carpio's progress report should include details related to monitoring her response to the Thiazide diuretics and ensuring her safety. Options A, B, and C all focus on these aspects by monitoring serum electrolytes, intake and output, and weight before drug administration, which are important considerations when a patient is on Thiazide diuretics. However, specifying the time of drug administration (8 o'clock in the evening) is not necessary in the progress report entry. The focus should be on the patient's response to the medication and the associated monitoring parameters. Time of administration is more relevant for nursing care plans or medication schedules.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's appropriate response is to provide the requested information clearly and directly. In this case, the client asked for the time, so the best response is to say "It is 10 o'clock" to answer their question promptly. Options A, C, and D do not address the client's question and may be perceived as dismissive or unhelpful.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasound can detect fetal congenital defects, placenta previa, and fetal lung maturity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A district hospital is an example of a secondary health facility. Secondary health facilities are the intermediate level of healthcare services, providing a higher level of care compared to primary health facilities like rural health units and barangay health stations. District hospitals typically offer more specialized medical services, diagnostic facilities, and inpatient care that are not available at lower-level health facilities. When Nurse Vince refers a patient to a district hospital, it means that the patient requires more extensive and specialized medical care beyond what can be provided at the primary level of care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The cardiovascular disorder most likely responsible for the symptoms described is a pericardial effusion. A pericardial effusion is an accumulation of fluid within the pericardial space surrounding the heart. When a large pericardial effusion is present, it can lead to compression of the heart chambers, resulting in symptoms such as chest pain and dyspnea.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should ask the mother information related to their daughter's menarche. Menarche refers to the first occurrence of menstruation in a girl, which is an important milestone in her development. By inquiring about the daughter's menarche, the nurse can gather essential information about the daughter's reproductive health, growth, and development. This allows the nurse to assess whether the daughter's menstrual cycle is regular and if there are any concerns related to her reproductive health. Understanding the daughter's menarche history is vital in providing appropriate healthcare and support for her.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage occurs when there is bleeding directly into the brain tissue, often due to conditions such as hypertension or vascular malformations. The sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits described in the patient are typical symptoms of an intracerebral hemorrhage. The location of the hemorrhagic lesion within the right basal ganglia corresponds to the clinical presentation. Ischemic stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) typically have different presentations and imaging findings compared to an intracerebral hemorrhage. Therefore, in this scenario, intracerebral hemorrhage is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Given the sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema, along with the physical examination findings of a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle, the most likely diagnosis is testicular torsion. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle, causing ischemia and severe pain. It is considered a surgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention to salvage the affected testicle. Prompt surgical detorsion is necessary to prevent irreversible testicular damage. While epididymitis, testicular trauma, and testicular tumors can also present with scrotal pain and swelling, the presence of a high-riding testicle in this context is highly suggestive of testicular torsion.