A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with periorbital edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms presented (periorbital edema, hypertension, proteinuria) along with the laboratory findings (elevated creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis) are classical signs of chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, the kidneys gradually lose their function over time, leading to impaired filtration of waste products and electrolyte imbalance. The presence of hypertension and proteinuria are common in CKD due to the compromised renal function. Additionally, elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis are indicative of kidney dysfunction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from sub-Saharan Africa are consistent with malaria. Intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites observed on blood smear examination are characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly Plasmodium falciparum, which is the most common and deadliest species causing malaria in sub-Saharan Africa. Plasmodium falciparum can lead to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, if not promptly treated. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not malaria. Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for Lyme disease, which typically presents with a different set of symptoms like erythema migrans rash. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, not malaria.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. In the scenario described, the painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation with a closed cervix is classic for placenta previa. This condition is more common in the third trimester and can be diagnosed through ultrasound. It is important to manage placenta previa carefully to prevent complications such as severe bleeding, preterm birth, and maternal/fetal distress.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The constellation of severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge in a pregnant woman raises suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are classic physical exam findings for PID. The presence of bilateral adnexal masses further supports the diagnosis, as PID can lead to the formation of tubo-ovarian abscesses. Ectopic pregnancy may present with similar symptoms but is less likely in this case as bilateral adnexal masses suggest a more diffuse inflammatory process. Placenta previa would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Ovarian torsion would present with sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain and is less likely to involve both ovaries simultaneously.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged rupture of membranes (>24 hours) increases the risk of intrauterine infection for both the mother and the fetus. When the amniotic sac has been ruptured for an extended period, there is a higher likelihood of bacteria entering the uterus, leading to chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the fetal membranes due to infection). Intrauterine infection can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus, potentially causing sepsis, preterm labor, and other complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for signs and symptoms of infection in both the mother and fetus when managing a woman in active labor with prolonged rupture of membranes.