ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium carbonate as a phosphate binder. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient regarding calcium carbonate administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium carbonate should be taken with meals because it requires the presence of stomach acid to be properly absorbed. Taking it with meals helps ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness as a phosphate binder in patients with chronic kidney disease. Administering calcium carbonate on an empty stomach may lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as upset stomach, bloating, and constipation. Taking it with a full glass of water is also recommended to help prevent potential gastrointestinal issues and to ensure proper hydration. Crushing tablets before administration is not advised unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider, as it can alter the drug's release and absorption properties.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
Question 3 of 9
Nurses may be privy to very personal information of patients and should make every effort to make it confidential, otherwise she can be charged of ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nurses are bound by strict confidentiality and privacy regulations in their profession. If a nurse fails to keep a patient's personal information confidential and discloses it without authorization, they can be charged with invasion of privacy. Invasion of privacy is the wrongful intrusion into a person's private affairs without their consent, and it is a serious violation of ethical and legal standards in healthcare. Nurses must always prioritize patient confidentiality to maintain trust and uphold ethical standards in their practice.
Question 4 of 9
It is not enough for the nurse to listen, but she also has, to validate what she has heard. The importance of validation are the following EXCEPT _____
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The importance of validation in the context of communication and nursing care does not include the assumption that most patients are cognitively impaired. It would be more appropriate to approach patient interactions with the assumption that patients are capable of understanding and coherent communication. Validation is important because it helps ensure that the nurse has truly understood the patient's message, prevents misinterpretation, and fosters a sense of empathy and trust in the nurse-patient relationship. Additionally, validating the patient's thoughts and feelings can help clarify confused thoughts and promote effective communication. The other options (A, C, and D) are all valid reasons emphasizing the significance of validation in effective communication.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with advanced cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety during episodes of breathlessness. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid medications are considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for dyspnea in palliative care patients with advanced cancer. Opioids help relieve dyspnea by reducing respiratory drive and the sensation of breathlessness, providing effective symptom management. In this case, addressing the patient's dyspnea with opioid medications would likely also help alleviate their anxiety related to breathlessness. Administering oxygen therapy (choice A) may not be effective at relieving dyspnea in this situation, as dyspnea in advanced cancer patients is often not primarily due to low oxygen levels. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques (choice B) and referring the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises (choice D) may be helpful complementary interventions, but opioid medications should be the priority for symptom management.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is complaining of urinary pain after being diagnosed with a urinary tract infection the previous day. What is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best action in this situation would be to administer the ordered antibiotic trimethoprim (Trimpex). A urinary tract infection (UTI) requires antibiotic treatment to eliminate the bacterial infection causing the symptoms. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride is a urinary tract analgesic that can help relieve urinary pain but does not treat the infection itself. Bethanechol is a cholinergic medication used to treat urinary retention, not a UTI. Acetaminophen and a warm bath may help with some discomfort but do not address the underlying infection causing the urinary pain. Therefore, administering the prescribed antibiotic would be the most appropriate action to target the source of the patient's symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with a Colles' fracture. What is the characteristic deformity associated with this type of fracture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Colles' fracture is a type of distal radius fracture characterized by a break of the radius bone in the forearm close to the wrist. In a Colles' fracture, the distal fragment of the fractured radius bone gets displaced dorsally, meaning it shifts upwards towards the back of the hand, creating a characteristic "dinner fork" deformity when viewed from the side. This dorsal displacement results in a visible bump on the back of the wrist and a noticeable deformity when compared to the uninjured side.
Question 8 of 9
After formulating and delimiting the research problem, which following will be a PRIORITY action of Gloria?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After formulating and delimiting the research problem, the priority action would be to plan the research design of the study. This is crucial because the research design will outline the specific methods and procedures that Gloria will use to investigate the research problem and answer the research questions. Planning the research design involves determining the overall structure of the study, selecting the appropriate research methods, and outlining how data will be collected and analyzed. This step is essential for ensuring that the study is well-organized, rigorous, and will yield reliable results. Developing a solid research design early on will set a strong foundation for the rest of the research process.
Question 9 of 9
Which is the MOST important risk factor to osteoporosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Menopause is the most important risk factor for osteoporosis because it leads to a decrease in estrogen levels, which plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density. After menopause, women are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis due to loss of estrogen's protective effects on bone mass. Other risk factors like history of previous fracture, being male, and short stature can also contribute to osteoporosis, but menopause has the strongest association with the development of the condition. It is essential for postmenopausal women to be aware of this risk factor and take preventive measures such as regular exercise, adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, and appropriate medical evaluation and treatment as needed.