ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.
Question 2 of 9
In uterine inversion, the last part to be replaced is the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In uterine inversion, the fundus is the last part to be replaced due to its position being the deepest inside the vagina. The fundus is the upper portion of the uterus and is the last part to invert back into its normal position. The cervix, isthmus, and body are parts of the uterus that are more easily replaced during the process of uterine inversion. The fundus being the final part to be replaced ensures the uterus is fully restored to its correct orientation.
Question 3 of 9
Delivery of breech with an extended head is accomplished through
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver for delivery of breech with an extended head. This maneuver involves flexing the head while still in the vagina to allow for easier delivery. The Burns Marshall maneuver (A) is for impacted fetal shoulders, Lovset maneuver (B) is for shoulder dystocia, and McRobert's maneuver (D) is for shoulder dystocia as well. The Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is specifically designed for delivering a breech with an extended head, making it the correct choice in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture: a) Define extra-peritoneal uterine rupture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A rupture of the uterine wall confined to the tissue. Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture refers to a rupture that does not breach the peritoneal cavity, keeping the damage confined to the uterine tissue only. This is distinct from intra-peritoneal rupture which involves the peritoneum (choice B) and complete rupture of all uterine layers (choice D). Choice A is incorrect as it does not specify the location of the tear, and it does not necessarily imply that there is no organ damage.
Question 5 of 9
enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acyclovir. The rationale is that sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) can sometimes be associated with viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that can potentially help treat the underlying viral infection causing SSHL. It is important to address the potential viral etiology before considering other treatments. Summary of other choices: B: Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not SSHL. C: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, not indicated for SSHL. D: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is sometimes used for SSHL, but addressing any potential viral infection with Acyclovir would be a more appropriate initial step.
Question 6 of 9
How can a healthcare provider support a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prescribe anti-nausea medication. This is the most appropriate choice to manage hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of morning sickness. Anti-nausea medication can help alleviate symptoms and prevent dehydration. Choice B (Recommend bed rest) may not directly address the nausea and vomiting associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C (Suggest a high-protein diet) and D (Advise on exercise) may not be effective in managing the condition or providing immediate relief from symptoms. Anti-nausea medication is the most evidence-based approach to support a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 7 of 9
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperextension casting. The AGACNP knows that this treatment is appropriate for a condition that requires immobilization and support while allowing controlled movement. Hyperextension casting provides stability and support while promoting healing. Observation (A) would not provide adequate treatment for a condition requiring immobilization. Jewett brace (C) is typically used for spinal fractures, not for conditions that require hyperextension casting. Surgical intervention (D) would be considered if conservative measures like casting have failed.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.
Question 9 of 9
Which one of the following fetal positions is associated with intense back pain during labor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occipito-posterior. This position occurs when the baby's head is facing forward but towards the mother's spine. This position can cause intense back pain during labor because the baby's head puts pressure on the mother's lower back. Occipito-anterior (A) is the most common and ideal position for labor. Transverse position (B) is when the baby is lying sideways, which may cause prolonged labor but not necessarily intense back pain. Occipito-lateral (D) is a less common position where the baby's head is facing sideways, which may not specifically cause intense back pain.