A patient with an abscess had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 4 and 250. Coli index is calculated by dividing the number of red colonies by the volume of water analyzed, which gives 2 red colonies / 500 ml = 4. Coli titer is the reciprocal of the coli index, so it is 1 / 4 = 250. This indicates the concentration of coliform bacteria in the water sample. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation steps for determining the coli index and coli titer. B has the correct coli index but incorrect coli titer. C and D have the values reversed, leading to incorrect results.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema pallidum. This bacterium is responsible for causing syphilis due to its unique spiral shape and ability to penetrate mucous membranes. It is transmitted through sexual contact or from mother to child during childbirth. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and Escherichia coli is a common bacterium found in the gut. Therefore, they are not responsible for syphilis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Thin, pale pink microorganisms with spiral coils suggest Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. 2. Staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method highlights the characteristic morphology of T. pallidum. 3. Syphilis presents with various stages and symptoms, correlating with the lymph node involvement. 4. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, presenting with different clinical features. 5. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia species, which do not match the description. 6. Trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma species, which have distinct morphology and staining properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because lipophilization is the process of removing water from cells under deep vacuum in a frozen state. Dehydration of the cell at a low temperature helps to preserve the cellular structure and components. Choice B is incorrect as hydration does the opposite of what lipophilization aims to achieve. Choice C is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve enriching cells with proteins. Choice D is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve removing protein content from cells.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that appears as long, thin, and spiral-shaped microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils under the microscope. This characteristic morphology is specific to Treponema species, making it the correct choice. Borrelia, Leptospira, and Vibrios have different shapes and arrangements under the microscope, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lysozyme, lactoferrin, interferon, and complement are all humoral factors involved in natural resistance. Lysozyme and lactoferrin are antimicrobial proteins that help defend against pathogens. Interferon is a signaling protein that inhibits viral replication, while complement is a group of proteins that enhance the immune response by promoting inflammation and opsonization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: - Choice A mentions only macrophages, which are not humoral factors but rather phagocytic cells. - Choice C lists immune cells involved in adaptive immunity (B and T lymphocytes, NK cells) rather than humoral factors of natural resistance. - Choice D includes immunoglobulins, which are part of adaptive immunity, not natural resistance.