A patient with an abscess had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia enterocolitica. Y. enterocolitica is known to cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea in humans. It is often associated with contaminated food or water. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, not diarrhea. Corynebacterium diphtheria causes respiratory diphtheria. Neisseria meningitidis is associated with meningitis and septicemia, not diarrhea. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and history, Y. enterocolitica is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid-fast stain. This stain is used for diagnosing tuberculosis due to the unique cell wall composition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which resists decolorization by acid-alcohol. This allows the bacteria to retain the primary stain (carbol fuchsin) and appear red under a microscope. Gram stain (B) is not suitable for Mycobacterium tuberculosis as it is gram-positive but does not retain the crystal violet-iodine complex. Negative stain (C) is not used for bacterial identification. Simple stain (D) does not differentiate acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viruses have the ability to infect all organisms, including plants, bacteria, animals, and even fungi. Viruses are non-living entities that require a host cell to replicate and spread. They can infect a wide range of organisms by attaching to specific receptors on the host cell's surface. Therefore, the correct answer is D as viruses have the capability to infect all living organisms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because viruses can infect not only plants, bacteria, and animals but also other organisms, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: EBV. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacteria, not viruses like Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The main pathogens involved in osteomyelitis are typically Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Haemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. EBV is not a causative agent of osteomyelitis. It is crucial to differentiate between bacterial and viral etiologies in infectious diseases to guide appropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: phialospores. Phialospores are conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell called a phialide. This structure is characteristic of fungi in the genus Penicillium. Arthrospores (A) are formed by the fragmentation of hyphae, porospores (B) are not a recognized term in mycology, and blastospores (D) are produced by budding from yeast cells. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the specific description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Incorrect - The complement system is not directly involved in the viral neutralization reaction. B: Correct - Specific antibodies neutralize viruses by blocking their ability to infect cells. C: Incorrect - Antibodies are titrated, but only one serum sample is required for neutralization testing. D: Incorrect - Viral neutralization is primarily used to measure antibody response, not to identify newly isolated viruses.