A patient with advanced dementia is no longer able to communicate verbally and displays signs of distress. What should the palliative nurse consider when assessing and managing the patient's distress?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When assessing and managing distress in a patient with advanced dementia who is no longer able to communicate verbally, the palliative nurse should consider exploring non-verbal cues and behaviors to identify the underlying causes of distress. Since the patient cannot communicate through words, it is essential to pay close attention to their non-verbal cues such as facial expressions, body language, and changes in behavior. Distress in dementia patients can be caused by a variety of factors including physical discomfort, unmet needs, environmental stressors, emotional distress, or even medication side effects. By carefully observing and interpreting non-verbal cues, the nurse can gain insight into what might be causing the patient's distress and tailor interventions accordingly. Simply focusing on physical comfort measures may not address the root cause of the distress, and administering sedative medications without understanding the underlying cause is not considered best practice in palliative care for dementia patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common hormonal disorder in women of reproductive age. The classic symptoms of PCOS include irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism (excess hair growth in a male pattern), and acne. Women with PCOS often have enlarged ovaries with multiple small cysts. Other common features include obesity, insulin resistance, and infertility. Endometriosis is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to symptoms such as pelvic pain and infertility. Ovarian cancer usually presents with nonspecific symptoms and is less likely in a young woman with these specific symptoms. Uterine fibroids are benign tumors that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure but are less likely to be associated with hirsutism and acne.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When determining the existence of malpractice, intent is not considered as a factor. Malpractice typically involves unintentional actions or negligence rather than a deliberate intent to cause harm. The key factors that are usually considered in a malpractice case include duty (a legal obligation to provide a certain standard of care), causation (the link between the provider's actions and the patient's injury), and the existence of an injury resulting from the provider's actions or omissions. Intent does not play a direct role in malpractice cases, as they are focused on the standard of care provided by the healthcare professional and the harm caused as a result.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in patient education about phosphate binder therapy is to "Take phosphate binders with meals." Phosphate binders are medications given to patients with chronic kidney disease to help control high phosphate levels in the blood. Taking phosphate binders with meals allows them to bind to the phosphorus present in the food, reducing its absorption in the body. This helps to lower blood phosphate levels effectively. Instructing the patient to take phosphate binders with meals ensures optimal binding of phosphorus from the diet, which is crucial for managing phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of Romy being diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and undergoing palliative treatment, the most appropriate nursing action is to focus on providing relief from symptoms. Palliative care aims to improve the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses by managing their symptoms, such as pain, shortness of breath, nausea, and other side effects of treatment. As the cancer is advanced and the goal is not curative treatment but rather to keep the patient comfortable, symptom management becomes a priority to ensure Romy's physical comfort and well-being during this difficult time. Providing relief from symptoms is crucial in palliative care to help enhance the patient's quality of life and ensure they are as comfortable as possible.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: For a displaced femoral neck fracture, the most appropriate surgical procedure is usually an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure involves making an incision to reposition the fractured bone fragments and securing them in place with screws or other fixation devices. ORIF allows for better alignment of the fracture, which is crucial for proper healing and minimizing the risk of complications like avascular necrosis or nonunion. Closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) may not be as effective for displaced femoral neck fractures due to the complex nature of the fracture and the need for precise realignment and stability provided by an open surgical approach. External fixation is less commonly used for femoral neck fractures and is typically reserved for certain specific cases where internal fixation is not feasible. Closed reduction alone is unlikely to provide adequate stability for a displaced femoral neck fracture and is generally not recommended as the primary surgical treatment for this type of injury.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A pituitary adenoma is a type of benign tumor that arises from the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. When a pituitary adenoma grows large enough, it can compress surrounding structures, including the optic chiasm – the point at which the optic nerves cross over in the brain. Compression of the optic chiasm can lead to symptoms such as vision problems (e.g., visual disturbances), headaches, and nausea/vomiting, which are consistent with the presentation described in the question. Meningiomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and medulloblastomas are less likely to compress the optic chiasm and present with different characteristic symptoms based on their locations and growth patterns.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A vegetative state, now more commonly referred to as unresponsive wakefulness syndrome, describes a condition where the patient is awake but with no awareness of themselves or their surroundings. This state usually follows a severe brain injury, such as traumatic brain injury. Patients in a vegetative state may have sleep-wake cycles, open their eyes, and even exhibit reflex movements, but they do not demonstrate any meaningful interaction with the environment. Differentiating between coma and vegetative state is important, as coma implies a complete lack of consciousness, while patients in a vegetative state have preserved wakefulness without awareness. Minimally conscious state (choice C) refers to a condition where there are some minimal signs of awareness or purposeful interaction, making it a different state than the one described in the scenario. Locked-in syndrome (choice D) is a condition where the patient is conscious and aware but unable to move or communicate due to paralysis, which is not consistent