ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with advanced dementia is no longer able to communicate verbally and displays signs of distress. What should the palliative nurse consider when assessing and managing the patient's distress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assessing and managing distress in a patient with advanced dementia who is no longer able to communicate verbally, the palliative nurse should consider exploring non-verbal cues and behaviors to identify the underlying causes of distress. Since the patient cannot communicate through words, it is essential to pay close attention to their non-verbal cues such as facial expressions, body language, and changes in behavior. Distress in dementia patients can be caused by a variety of factors including physical discomfort, unmet needs, environmental stressors, emotional distress, or even medication side effects. By carefully observing and interpreting non-verbal cues, the nurse can gain insight into what might be causing the patient's distress and tailor interventions accordingly. Simply focusing on physical comfort measures may not address the root cause of the distress, and administering sedative medications without understanding the underlying cause is not considered best practice in palliative care for dementia patients.
Question 2 of 5
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage lung disease experiences dyspnea and anxiety. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the patient diaphragmatic breathing exercises for respiratory support would be the most appropriate intervention to address the symptoms of dyspnea and anxiety in this scenario. Diaphragmatic breathing, also known as belly breathing, focuses on engaging the diaphragm for deep, slow breaths, which can help improve lung expansion and ventilation. This technique can help the patient manage their breathing difficulty and reduce anxiety by promoting relaxation and improving oxygen exchange in the lungs. It empowers the patient with a coping strategy they can use independently to alleviate distressing symptoms at any time. Administering oxygen therapy may be beneficial, but the priority is to teach the patient a technique they can use proactively and routinely. Prescribing benzodiazepines should be considered as an adjunct if non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective in managing anxiety. Referring to a pulmonologist may be necessary for comprehensive evaluation and treatment but may not directly address the immediate symptoms of dyspnea and anxiety.
Question 3 of 5
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's MI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) presenting with ST-segment elevation on ECG, the healthcare team should prioritize performing emergent coronary angiography for revascularization. This intervention, also known as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), involves opening up the blocked coronary artery responsible for the MI. Timely reperfusion of the affected artery is crucial in reducing myocardial damage and improving outcomes in acute MI patients. PCI is considered the preferred method for revascularization in patients with ST-segment elevation MI, as it has been shown to be more effective and associated with better outcomes compared to fibrinolytic therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A patient in the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with cardiogenic shock. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's shock?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) complicated by cardiogenic shock, the primary intervention to manage shock is emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). PCI is a procedure performed to restore blood flow in an occluded coronary artery that is causing the MI. By opening up the blocked artery and restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, PCI can help reduce myocardial damage, improve cardiac function, and stabilize the patient's condition. Prompt reperfusion via PCI is crucial in the setting of cardiogenic shock to improve survival outcomes and reduce the risk of further complications. Administering inotropic medications, initiating therapeutic hypothermia, or recommending anticoagulant therapy may be components of management in specific cases but are not the primary intervention for managing shock in a patient with acute MI and cardiogenic shock.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture is scheduled for surgical intervention. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate for this type of fracture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a displaced femoral neck fracture, the most appropriate surgical procedure is usually an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure involves making an incision to reposition the fractured bone fragments and securing them in place with screws or other fixation devices. ORIF allows for better alignment of the fracture, which is crucial for proper healing and minimizing the risk of complications like avascular necrosis or nonunion. Closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) may not be as effective for displaced femoral neck fractures due to the complex nature of the fracture and the need for precise realignment and stability provided by an open surgical approach. External fixation is less commonly used for femoral neck fractures and is typically reserved for certain specific cases where internal fixation is not feasible. Closed reduction alone is unlikely to provide adequate stability for a displaced femoral neck fracture and is generally not recommended as the primary surgical treatment for this type of injury.