A patient with advanced cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety during episodes of breathlessness. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with advanced cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety during episodes of breathlessness. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Opioid medications are considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for dyspnea in palliative care patients with advanced cancer. Opioids help relieve dyspnea by reducing respiratory drive and the sensation of breathlessness, providing effective symptom management. In this case, addressing the patient's dyspnea with opioid medications would likely also help alleviate their anxiety related to breathlessness. Administering oxygen therapy (choice A) may not be effective at relieving dyspnea in this situation, as dyspnea in advanced cancer patients is often not primarily due to low oxygen levels. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques (choice B) and referring the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises (choice D) may be helpful complementary interventions, but opioid medications should be the priority for symptom management.

Question 2 of 9

In planning for Sonny's oxygen therapy, the nurse should consider which of the following, EXCEPT

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse does not need to determine the age of Excel when planning for Sonny's oxygen therapy. This information is irrelevant to the specific care requirements of Sonny's oxygen therapy. Sonny's age, medical history, respiratory status, and oxygen needs are the key considerations in planning for his oxygen therapy. The nurse should focus on factors such as the need for a humidifier, length of tubing, and the manner of administering oxygen (continuous or intermittent) to ensure effective and safe delivery of oxygen therapy to Sonny.

Question 3 of 9

Which assessment findings is INDICATIVE of the diagnosis of hypertension?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The assessment finding that is indicative of the diagnosis of hypertension is consistent evaluation of blood pressure. Hypertension is diagnosed based on repeated measurements of elevated blood pressure. Consistently high blood pressure readings, usually defined as systolic blood pressure consistently at or above 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure consistently at or above 90 mmHg, are a key factor in diagnosing hypertension. Family history of high blood pressure (Choice A), elevation of blood cholesterol level (Choice B), and a stressful work environment (Choice C) may be risk factors for hypertension but are not diagnostic criteria. In order to diagnose hypertension, healthcare providers rely on consistent measurement and evaluation of blood pressure over time.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with painless, progressive visual field loss, particularly in the peripheral vision, in both eyes. Gonioscopy reveals an open iridocorneal angle. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of painless, progressive visual field loss, especially in the peripheral vision, along with an open iridocorneal angle is characteristic of open-angle glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is a type of glaucoma where there is no physical obstruction to the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye, but there is gradual damage to the optic nerve over time. The gradual loss of peripheral vision is a common early symptom of open-angle glaucoma. It is essential to diagnose and manage open-angle glaucoma promptly to prevent irreversible vision loss.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following terms refers to the process by which antibodies coat the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement proteins?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Opsonization refers to the process by which antibodies bind to the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement proteins. This coating of antibodies enhances the ability of the immune system to recognize and eliminate the pathogens effectively. Phagocytes (such as macrophages and neutrophils) are better able to engulf and digest pathogens that have been opsonized, as the antibodies attached to the pathogen surface signal to the phagocytes that they are foreign invaders. This process is crucial in the body's immune response to infections and helps in clearing pathogens from the system.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following would the nurse expect to see as symptoms in a child with ADHD?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Children with ADHD often display hyperactive and impulsive behaviors, such as excessive running, climbing, and fidgeting. These behaviors are characteristic symptoms of the hyperactive-impulsive subtype of ADHD. Children with ADHD may struggle to sit still, have difficulty engaging in quiet activities, and often seem on the go. Therefore, the nurse would expect to see signs of excessive movement and restlessness in a child with ADHD.

Question 7 of 9

A postpartum client exhibits signs of depression, including tearfulness, feelings of guilt, and decreased interest in self-care. Which nursing intervention should be prioritized?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The prioritized nursing intervention in this situation should be assessing for the risk of harm to self or infant. It is crucial to ensure the safety of the postpartum client and her infant as depression can increase the risk of self-harm or harm to the newborn. By assessing for any potential risks, the nurse can take appropriate actions to prevent any harm and ensure the well-being of both the client and the infant. Once the assessment is completed, further interventions like encouraging participation in support groups, referring to a mental health professional, or administering medications can be considered based on the assessment findings.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with bruising, petechiae, and mucosal bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) with decreased platelet count. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of coagulation leading to both thrombosis and hemorrhage. In patients with chronic liver disease, especially in the setting of advanced cirrhosis, DIC can develop due to factors such as decreased synthesis of coagulation factors and impaired clearance of activated clotting factors. The patient in this scenario presents with signs of both abnormal bleeding (bruising, petechiae, mucosal bleeding) and laboratory findings consistent with DIC, including prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) along with decreased platelet count.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is a common complication of untreated gonorrhea or chlamydia infection in women?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy is a common complication of untreated gonorrhea or chlamydia infection in women. This occurs when a fertilized egg implants and grows outside the uterus, typically in one of the fallopian tubes. Both gonorrhea and chlamydia can lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes due to untreated inflammation and infection. This scarring may obstruct the fallopian tubes, making it difficult for the fertilized egg to travel to the uterus for implantation. As a result, the egg may implant and grow in the fallopian tube, leading to an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancies are dangerous and can result in serious complications for the woman, including rupture of the fallopian tube, internal bleeding, and potentially life-threatening situations. It is crucial to seek prompt treatment for gonorrhea and chlamydia to prevent such severe outcomes.

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