ATI RN
ATI Immune System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with advanced AIDS has a nursing diagnosis of impaired memory related to neurologic changes. In planning care for the patient, what should the nurse set as the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority for a patient with advanced AIDS experiencing impaired memory due to neurological changes is to maintain a safe patient environment, which is option A. This choice takes precedence because ensuring the safety of the patient is fundamental and critical in all care settings. Option B, providing a quiet and non-stressful environment, is important for the patient's comfort but does not address the immediate safety concerns that could arise from memory impairment. Option C, using memory cues like calendars and clocks, and option D, providing written instructions, are helpful interventions to promote orientation and understanding, but they are secondary to ensuring the patient's safety. Educationally, understanding prioritization in nursing care is crucial. In this case, the rationale behind choosing the answer that addresses the most critical and immediate need highlights the significance of triaging patient care based on the urgency and potential impact on the patient's well-being. Prioritizing safety in care planning is a foundational principle in nursing practice.
Question 2 of 5
When teaching the patient with cancer about chemotherapy, which approach should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In teaching a patient with cancer about chemotherapy, the nurse should take approach B: Explain that antiemetics, antidiarrheals, and analgesics will be provided as needed to control side effects. This approach is correct because it addresses the patient's concerns about potential side effects and provides reassurance that supportive care will be available. Option A is incorrect because withholding information about possible side effects can lead to increased anxiety and fear in the patient. Providing honest and thorough information is essential in empowering patients to make informed decisions about their care. Option C is incorrect because some side effects of chemotherapy can indeed be life-threatening, such as severe infections or allergic reactions. It is important for the patient to be aware of potential serious side effects and how to seek help if they occur. Option D is incorrect because while chemotherapy-induced alopecia can be distressing, it is usually temporary rather than permanent. Misinforming the patient about the permanence of alopecia can cause unnecessary anxiety and distress. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to provide accurate and comprehensive information to patients undergoing chemotherapy. By addressing potential side effects and reassuring patients about available supportive measures, nurses can help alleviate anxiety and promote patient understanding and adherence to treatment.
Question 3 of 5
Priority Decision: The patient with advanced cancer is having difficulty controlling her pain. She says she is afraid she will become addicted to the opioids. What is the first thing the nurse should do for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Obtain a detailed pain history including quality, location, intensity, duration, and type of pain. This option is the most appropriate because before addressing the patient's fear of opioid addiction, it is essential for the nurse to gather comprehensive information about the patient's pain experience. Understanding the nature of the pain, its characteristics, and how it impacts the patient is crucial in developing an effective pain management plan. Option A is incorrect because administering a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug may not be the most suitable or effective intervention without a thorough assessment of the pain. Option B is incorrect because while assessing vital signs and behavior is important, it is secondary to obtaining a detailed pain history in this situation. Option C is incorrect as asking the patient to keep a pain diary primarily to assess potential addiction overlooks the immediate need to address the patient's pain and concerns about opioid use. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the significance of a systematic and holistic approach to pain management in patients with advanced cancer. By prioritizing the assessment of pain through a detailed history, nurses can tailor interventions to address both the physical and psychological aspects of pain, including concerns about opioid addiction. This rationale underscores the importance of individualized care and the need to address patient fears and misconceptions in a compassionate and evidence-based manner.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is admitting a patient to the clinical unit from surgery. Being alert to potential fluid volume alterations, what assessment data will be important for the nurse to monitor to identify early changes in the patient’s postoperative fluid volume (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and nursing practice, monitoring fluid volume status is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient safety and prevent complications. The correct answer is A) Intake and output. Intake and output monitoring provides direct information about the fluid balance in the body, helping the nurse assess for any significant changes that may indicate fluid volume alterations. Skin turgor (option B) is a valuable assessment for dehydration but may not provide early signs of fluid volume alterations in a postoperative patient. Lung sounds (option C) are more indicative of respiratory function rather than fluid volume status. Respiratory rate (option D) is important but may not be as sensitive as intake and output monitoring in detecting early changes in fluid volume. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing intake and output as a priority assessment helps students and nurses comprehend the significance of fluid balance in postoperative care. Emphasizing the importance of accurate assessment techniques can enhance patient outcomes and promote critical thinking skills in clinical practice.
Question 5 of 5
What are characteristics of the phosphate buffer system (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Resultant sodium biphosphate is eliminated by kidneys. The phosphate buffer system consists of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4-) and monohydrogen phosphate (HPO4^2-). When a strong acid is added, H2PO4- acts as a weak acid, accepting protons to neutralize the acid. When a strong base is added, HPO4^2- acts as a weak base, binding protons to neutralize the base. Option A is incorrect because the phosphate buffer system does not neutralize a strong base to a weak base and water. Option C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the dissociation of free acid radicals. Option D is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the neutralization process of a strong acid in the phosphate buffer system. In an educational context, understanding buffer systems like the phosphate buffer system is crucial in pharmacology as they help maintain the pH of bodily fluids within a narrow range. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals in understanding drug interactions, physiological processes, and disease states that can impact acid-base balance.