ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) develops refractory hypoxemia despite maximal ventilatory support and prone positioning. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is most likely to improve oxygenation and reduce mortality in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with ARDS who is experiencing refractory hypoxemia despite maximal ventilatory support and prone positioning, the use of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a potentially life-saving adjunctive therapy. ECMO works by providing temporary support for gas exchange outside the body, allowing the lungs to rest and heal while providing adequate oxygenation and carbon dioxide removal. The use of ECMO has been associated with improved oxygenation and reduced mortality in severe cases of ARDS, especially in patients who fail conventional therapies. High-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV) has not consistently shown mortality benefit in ARDS, continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is not directly indicated for hypoxemia in ARDS, and inhaled nitric oxide (iNO) has shown limited benefit in improving oxygenation in ARDS without a clear impact on mortality.
Question 2 of 9
During a support group meeting, Nurse Donato, in a teasing manner, has made several provocative remarks about your appearance and behavior as a group leader. Select your MOST appropriate response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choosing option D, "Donato, what you are saying is inappropriate," is the most appropriate response in this situation. It directly addresses Nurse Donato's behavior without escalating the situation or being overly confrontational. By calmly pointing out that the remarks are inappropriate, you are setting a boundary and letting Nurse Donato know that such behavior is not acceptable in a professional setting. This response also signals to the rest of the group that you are aware of the inappropriate comments and are taking action to address them. It is important to address such behavior professionally and assertively to maintain a respectful and supportive environment during the support group meeting.
Question 3 of 9
Considering the pain assessment scale (1, is the least pain and 5 is the most painful) Mrs. P described her pain in the scale of 5, you expect that the doctor will order which of the following pain medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient describes their pain as a 5 on the pain assessment scale, it indicates severe pain and the need for a strong pain medication. Morphine Sulphate is a potent opioid analgesic that is commonly used to manage severe pain, such as in cases where the pain is rated as 5. Meperidine HCl (Demerol) is another opioid analgesic, but it is not as commonly used due to its side effect profile and potential for toxicity. Fentanyl (Duragesic) is also a potent opioid analgesic that can be used for severe pain, but morphine is often preferred in this situation. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a milder pain reliever and is not typically sufficient for pain described at a level of 5 on the pain scale.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following signs is indicative of shock in a trauma patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid capillary refill is a sign indicative of shock in a trauma patient. Shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs and tissues do not receive adequate blood flow and oxygen, leading to cellular damage and eventual organ failure. In a trauma patient, rapid capillary refill suggests poor perfusion, which is a common feature of shock. The capillary refill time is an important clinical assessment that measures the time it takes for color to return to the nail bed after pressure is applied. In cases of shock, the refill time is faster than normal, indicating a systemic circulatory disturbance. Other signs of shock may include tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypotension (not hypertension), and hypothermia (not hyperthermia).
Question 5 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen is rigid, and fetal parts are palpable abdominally. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Uterine rupture is the most likely cause of these symptoms in a pregnant woman presenting with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, rigidity of the abdomen, and palpable fetal parts abdominally. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy, typically occurring during labor in women with a previous cesarean delivery or other uterine scars. The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain can be associated with vaginal bleeding due to the tearing of the uterine wall, causing fetal parts to be palpable abdominally. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention. Ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion may present with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding but would not typically present with palpable fetal parts abdominally in a pregnant woman.
Question 6 of 9
The immunity conferred by tetanus toxoid is best described as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid provides long-lasting active immunity. When a person is vaccinated with tetanus toxoid, their immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin. These antibodies provide protection against tetanus infection by recognizing and neutralizing the toxin if the person is exposed to the bacteria that causes tetanus in the future. This active immune response can last for many years, providing ongoing protection against tetanus. However, booster doses are recommended every 10 years to maintain adequate levels of protection.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the phenomenon of immunological memory, wherein the immune system mounts a faster and more robust response upon re-exposure to a previously encountered pathogen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immunological memory is primarily maintained by the clonal expansion of memory B cells. Memory B cells are a type of long-lived immune cell that originates from previously activated B cells during an immune response to a pathogen. When the immune system encounters the same pathogen again, memory B cells can quickly recognize and respond to it by undergoing rapid clonal expansion and differentiation into plasma cells that produce specific antibodies. This quick and robust response leads to the more efficient elimination of the pathogen during secondary exposure, resulting in the faster and stronger immune response characteristic of immunological memory.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with a pruritic, erythematous rash with scaly plaques and satellite papules and pustules in the inguinal folds and gluteal cleft. The patient reports recent antibiotic use for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described indicates a candidal infection, which commonly occurs in warm, moist body areas like inguinal folds and gluteal cleft. The pruritic, erythematous rash with scaly plaques and satellite papules and pustules is characteristic of cutaneous candidiasis. The recent antibiotic use for urinary tract infection likely disrupted the normal skin flora, predisposing the patient to a Candida overgrowth. Tinea cruris (jock itch) can also present similarly, but the presence of satellite papules and pustules is more indicative of candidiasis. Erythrasma typically presents as well-defined brown-red patches without satellite lesions, and intertrigo is a more generic term referring to inflammation of skin folds that can have various causes, including candidiasis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning. What action should the palliative nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage COPD expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning, the palliative nurse should initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences. Advance care planning involves discussing and documenting a patient's preferences regarding future medical care, particularly in situations where the patient may no longer be able to make decisions. This discussion helps ensure that the patient's wishes are respected and followed in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. By engaging in advance care planning discussions, the nurse can help the patient feel empowered, supported, and in control of their medical care decisions. It also allows healthcare providers to align care with the patient's values and goals, ultimately improving quality of life and ensuring dignity at the end of life.