A patient with acute food poisoning had fecal cultures grown on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. What microorganism is most likely responsible?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Endo agar is a selective and differential media commonly used to isolate gram-negative bacteria. Step 2: Colorless colonies on Endo agar indicate the absence of lactose fermentation. Step 3: Salmonella is a gram-negative bacterium that does not ferment lactose, leading to colorless colonies on Endo agar. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Salmonella. Summary: B: Escherichia coli ferments lactose, producing pink colonies on Endo agar. C: Staphylococcus is a gram-positive bacterium and would not grow on Endo agar. D: Shigella is a gram-negative bacterium but ferments lactose, resulting in pink colonies on Endo agar.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Schizogony is the process in protozoans where multiple nuclear divisions occur before cell division. This results in the formation of multiple daughter cells. - A: Budding is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism grows from an outgrowth on the parent. - B: Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells. - D: Fragmentation is a form of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into fragments, each developing into a new organism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is specifically used to treat intestinal candidiasis because it targets and eliminates the Candida species responsible for the infection. It is not absorbed systemically, acting only locally in the gastrointestinal tract. Griseofulvin (B) is mainly used to treat fungal skin infections, not intestinal candidiasis. Undecyne (C) is an antifungal agent used for skin infections, not for intestinal candidiasis. Amphotericin B (D) is a potent antifungal agent used for systemic fungal infections, not specifically for intestinal candidiasis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: colonization. E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx indicate colonization rather than being part of the normal resident flora. Colonization refers to the presence of these bacteria on body surfaces without causing harm. They are not considered normal flora in the pharynx but rather transient or opportunistic pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because these bacteria are not part of the normal resident flora of the pharynx. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that these bacteria are both normal flora and colonization, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as there is evidence of bacterial presence, indicating colonization.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Endo agar is a selective and differential media commonly used to isolate gram-negative bacteria. Step 2: Colorless colonies on Endo agar indicate the absence of lactose fermentation. Step 3: Salmonella is a gram-negative bacterium that does not ferment lactose, leading to colorless colonies on Endo agar. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Salmonella. Summary: B: Escherichia coli ferments lactose, producing pink colonies on Endo agar. C: Staphylococcus is a gram-positive bacterium and would not grow on Endo agar. D: Shigella is a gram-negative bacterium but ferments lactose, resulting in pink colonies on Endo agar.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: lipopolysaccharides. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, consisting of lipid A, core polysaccharides, and O antigen. Lipopolysaccharides are known to induce strong immune responses and can cause septic shock. Proteins (choice A) are components of exotoxins, not endotoxins. Teichoic acid (choice C) is found in Gram-positive bacteria, not Gram-negative bacteria. Peptidoglycan (choice D) is a major component of bacterial cell walls but is not considered an endotoxin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chitin is a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of fungi. Bacteria have cell walls made of peptidoglycan, not chitin. Viruses do not have cell walls as they are acellular entities. Therefore, the correct answer is A: fungi.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. This method involves staining with gentian violet, followed by Lugol's solution, 96% alcohol decolorization, and counterstaining with safranin or water-magenta. This staining sequence allows for the differentiation of bacteria based on their cell wall composition. In the case of lobar pneumonia, the causative agent is typically a bacterium with a cell wall that retains the crystal violet stain after decolorization with alcohol, indicating a Gram-positive bacterium. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Ziehl-Nielsen staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky staining is primarily used in the identification of blood cells and blood parasites, not for bacteria. D: Neisser staining is not a commonly used staining method in microbiology for bacterial identification.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: scalp. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that specifically affects the scalp. This infection is caused by dermatophytes, which thrive in warm and moist environments. It typically presents with symptoms such as scaling, itching, and hair loss on the scalp. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinea pedis (athlete's foot) affects the feet, oral thrush is a fungal infection of the mouth, and tinea manuum affects the hands. By process of elimination and understanding the specific characteristics of tinea capitis, we can determine that the scalp is the correct location for this fungal infection.