ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produced gas in a nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rods that are known to produce gas in nutrient broths. Proteus vulgaris is commonly associated with urinary tract infections and can also cause abdominal infections. A: Salmonella typhi typically causes typhoid fever and is not known to produce gas in nutrient broths. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a causative agent of dysentery and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broths. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium and does not fit the description of the organism in the stool culture.
Question 2 of 9
The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.
Question 3 of 9
A patient consulted a dentist about itching and burning in the oral cavity; high temperature. The patient was diagnosed with trichomonal gingivostomatitis. What drug should be chosen for his treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Trichomonal gingivostomatitis is caused by the parasite Trichomonas tenax. Step 2: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic organisms like Trichomonas. Step 3: Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates Trichomonas parasites in the oral cavity. Step 4: Therefore, the correct drug choice for treating trichomonal gingivostomatitis is Metronidazole. Summary: - Ampicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against Gram-positive bacteria, not parasites. - Gentamicin sulfate (C) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not parasitic infections. - Nystatin (D) is an antifungal medication used for treating fungal infections, not parasitic infections like trichomonal gingivostomatitis.
Question 4 of 9
On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380% , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 5 of 9
Bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment are referred to as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high salt environments. They have adapted to survive and grow in areas with high salt concentrations. This preference for high salt levels is what distinguishes halophiles from other types of bacteria. A: Calciphiles are bacteria that prefer high levels of calcium. C: Osmophiles are bacteria that thrive in environments with high sugar concentrations. D: Mesophiles are bacteria that prefer moderate temperature ranges for growth. In summary, the correct term for bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment is halophiles, making choices A, C, and D incorrect in this context.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial endospores. Bacterial endospores have a higher resistance to environmental stresses due to their unique structure, which includes a tough outer layer that protects the spore from harsh conditions such as heat, chemicals, and radiation. This protective layer allows endospores to remain dormant and survive in unfavorable environments until conditions improve. Summary: B: Fungal spores - While fungal spores can also survive in harsh conditions, they are generally not as resistant as bacterial endospores due to differences in their protective structures. C: Enveloped viruses - Enveloped viruses are susceptible to environmental stresses as their lipid envelope can easily be damaged by heat, chemicals, and other factors. D: Vegetative bacterial cells - Vegetative bacterial cells are more susceptible to environmental stresses compared to endospores, as they do not have the same level of protective mechanisms to survive in unfavorable conditions.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following statements for measles is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.
Question 8 of 9
All the statements about Pseudomonas aeruginosa are correct, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: It is non-motile and non-spore forming. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is motile due to its flagella and is non-spore forming. A is correct because it is a Gram-negative bacterium, and B is correct as it is oxidase-positive. D is incorrect because C is not true.
Question 9 of 9
The bacterial component targeted by penicillin is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cell wall. Penicillin targets the cell wall of bacteria by inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycan, a crucial component of the cell wall. This weakens the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis. Choice A (DNA) is incorrect because penicillin does not directly target DNA. Choice B (Plasma membrane) is incorrect as penicillin primarily affects the cell wall, not the plasma membrane. Choice D (Ribosomes) is incorrect because penicillin does not target bacterial ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis.