A patient with abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produced gas in a nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rods that are known to produce gas in nutrient broths. Proteus vulgaris is commonly associated with urinary tract infections and can also cause abdominal infections. A: Salmonella typhi typically causes typhoid fever and is not known to produce gas in nutrient broths. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a causative agent of dysentery and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broths. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium and does not fit the description of the organism in the stool culture.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prions. Prions are infectious proteins that lack nucleic acids, such as DNA or RNA, which are essential components of all other living organisms, including Archaea, Bacteria, and Viruses. Prions are unique in their ability to cause protein misfolding and aggregation in the brain, leading to various neurodegenerative diseases. The other choices (A: Archaea, B: Viruses, D: Bacteria) all contain nucleic acids in the form of DNA or RNA, making them distinct from prions. Therefore, C is the correct answer in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotic. Brucellosis is a bacterial infection, and antibiotics are the primary treatment to target and eliminate the bacteria causing the disease. Antibiotics such as doxycycline and rifampin are commonly used for brucellosis treatment. Donor immunoglobulin (B) is not used to treat brucellosis as it is not caused by a deficiency in antibodies. Inactivated therapeutic vaccine (C) is used for prevention, not for treating active infections. Antitoxic serum (D) is used to neutralize toxins produced by bacteria, not to directly kill the bacteria themselves in cases like brucellosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. The presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite causing amoebic dysentery. It forms cysts with four nuclei before maturing into trophozoites. Balantidium coli (B) is a ciliated protozoan causing balantidiasis, not known for four-nuclei cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) forms cysts with two nuclei, causing giardiasis. Trichomonas hominis (D) is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human colon, not associated with four-nuclei cysts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Trichomonal gingivostomatitis is caused by the parasite Trichomonas tenax. Step 2: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic organisms like Trichomonas. Step 3: Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates Trichomonas parasites in the oral cavity. Step 4: Therefore, the correct drug choice for treating trichomonal gingivostomatitis is Metronidazole. Summary: - Ampicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against Gram-positive bacteria, not parasites. - Gentamicin sulfate (C) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not parasitic infections. - Nystatin (D) is an antifungal medication used for treating fungal infections, not parasitic infections like trichomonal gingivostomatitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cell wall. Penicillin targets the cell wall of bacteria by inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycan, a crucial component of the cell wall. This weakens the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis. Choice A (DNA) is incorrect because penicillin does not directly target DNA. Choice B (Plasma membrane) is incorrect as penicillin primarily affects the cell wall, not the plasma membrane. Choice D (Ribosomes) is incorrect because penicillin does not target bacterial ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The term bacilli refers to rod-shaped bacteria, typically found in the Gram-positive group. Spore-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, are characterized by their rod shape. Choice A is incorrect as the color in Gram staining does not define bacilli. Choice C is incorrect as peptidoglycan content does not determine the classification of bacilli. Choice D is incorrect as bacilli do have a specific characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is B due to the shape and characteristic of spore-forming bacteria.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: S. aureus is known to produce hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxin. Step 2: S. aureus colonies usually exhibit golden-yellow pigmentation with beta-hemolytic zones. Step 3: S. aureus has developed resistance to penicillin due to the production of beta-lactamase. Step 4: Therefore, statement C is not true as S. aureus is not always sensitive to penicillin. Summary: Choices A and B are correct statements about S. aureus, while choice C is incorrect due to the increasing penicillin resistance seen in S. aureus.